Baby Astronaut Posted September 8, 2009 Share Posted September 8, 2009 If work is Force x Distance, what is Force x Time? Example: you're holding a large book mid-air, eventually you get tired from it -- yet no distance was covered. But since a force exerted over a measure of time doesn't fit as "work", how's it result in spent energy? What's the term if no distance was covered? --Power? Effort? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
insane_alien Posted September 8, 2009 Share Posted September 8, 2009 impulse. but holding a book sstationary does not actually take any energy so again impulse is zero too in this case. you get tired holding a book up because your muscles have to keep tensed. this requires a reaction going on in the cells that produces an abundance of chemicals that give the tired and achey feeling. the energy expended does not go into the book, only to keepin your muscles tensed due to certain mechanical disadvantages of our body. when thinking about this it would be best to consider a nonbiological system. such as a book sitting on a table. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Baby Astronaut Posted September 8, 2009 Author Share Posted September 8, 2009 when thinking about this it would be best to consider a nonbiological system. such as a book sitting on a table. Ahh, makes sense. But in a way, it's still problematic in one non-biological area. Let's say a tiny machine anchored in the ground is pushing against a large building. Nothing moves. Yet in a few hours, the machine's batteries are dead. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
insane_alien Posted September 8, 2009 Share Posted September 8, 2009 again, all the energy is lost in the non ideality of the motor. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Baby Astronaut Posted September 8, 2009 Author Share Posted September 8, 2009 In both cases, is work being done to the muscles system and motor themselves -- even if neither moves? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
insane_alien Posted September 8, 2009 Share Posted September 8, 2009 no. in the biological case energy is lost through chemical reactions so the energy goes to heat and in the case of the electric motor the energy is lost to resistance (and hence turned into heat) as there must be current. if you used a clockwork mechanism that used a spring to deliver the energy then the spring would not come unwound over time(ignoring the fact that you can never get a perfect spring). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted September 8, 2009 Share Posted September 8, 2009 The engine has merely become an entropy generator. All waste heat, no work. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J.C.MacSwell Posted September 9, 2009 Share Posted September 9, 2009 The engine has merely become an entropy generator. All waste heat, no work. Yep, 0 % efficiency, or like the claims (correctly in context) on those electric heaters it's a 100% efficient heater. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ajb Posted September 9, 2009 Share Posted September 9, 2009 Another way to view impulse is as change in momentum. So, infinitesimally we have [math]\delta I = F \delta t = \frac{\delta p}{\delta t} \delta t = \delta p[/math] (being very slack here with any rigour). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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