frazzle

I was wondering if anyone could help clarify this problem I am having. Upon reading a section in a paper, I am a bit stuck as to how this value of the lower bound of the neutrino mass is reached here. I have highlighted the relevent part in the snapshot below: http://img487.imageshack.us/img487/3873/neutrinomass3fk.jpg Is there something missing from this passage, or am I just missing something blindingly obvious? I can't seem to understand how the two squared mass differences coupled with the assumption of hierarchy lead to the quoted value! in case you're curious, the paper is: http://www.arxiv.org/PS_cache/astro-ph/pdf/0407/0407207.pdf thank you!

cheers for the pointer. after doing some more reading on the subject, the theory seems rather more reasonable than the copenhagen interpretation. how is it that such an outlandish interpretation became 'standard' over a seemingly more sensible one?

Hello, I'm currently part way through my physics degree, and I'm researching the De Broglie-Bohm pilot wave theory. So far, I understand the basic premise of the theory as follows. All atomic particles, for example electrons, possess a real position and velocity. The wavefunction also exists in the form of a ‘matter wave’ which acts to guide the motion of the particles in such a way that their statistical properties are exactly as predicted by quantum mechanics. I understand that this it is a 'hidden variable' theory, and as such the underlying deterministic sub-structure is 'hidden', but I was wondering if anyone could help expand on a descriptive definition of the theory, as I am finding it difficult to find any information in between the extremely basic one-line definition and the mathematical proofs and expansions of some specific part of the theories. Basically, I am finding reasearching the subject to be much harder than any of the other basic quantum ideas I've looked into, and would be grateful for any help and/or links. Cheers!