Dear all,
I am wondering if please somebody could take the time and explain the background and reason to how and why exactly effective population size can be estimated with Linkage disequilibrium?
I know what LD is, and Hill (1981) postulated that Ne can be estimated using it because the variance of the disequilibrium or correlation of gene frequencies is a known function of population size.
However I am not sure how that function looks like, and WHY it is a function of pop size.
Any advice woud be greatly appreciated!
