catface34

Hi CharonY, thanks for your reply. From what you have told me, it would be unlikely that an infectious process is causing a patients' symptoms if there is no biochemical evidence of infection during a flare up. Is this also true of fungal infections? From what I understand of systemic fungal infections, they are aggressive and don't have latent periods, or am I wrong (i.e. from what I've read, systemic fungal infections have no chill and go batshit lol!)?

Greetings all! I have a question related to a long-standing problem. I was told by a doctor that one can have a chronic infection (his words were: some old virus that never went away), even though repeated and frequent bloodwork shows: low CRP (>1), low ESR, perfectly normal WBCs and normal general IgG, IgA, IgM. I do not agree with this; I know that infections can evade the immune system, but how is it possible that a chronic symptomatic infection would not be at least causing some inflammation? If an infection is causing a patients symptoms, then surely the infection is doing 'work' somewhere? The only immunological finding is very high leukocyte count in the urine and some blood, which could indicate a kidney infection. However, in order to make the patient feel crappy, the infection would have to be systemic, right? Apologies if my understanding of immunology is laughable, I'm really trying to learn about this stuff!