UnderwoodDudleywood

Ok, thank you Strange, I think I get it now, that was a very clear explanation! Thank you again everyone who helped me out by having a look at that article!

Thanks again John. I'm sorry to be such a dunce, but this whole business of "infinite dilution" then, is irrelevant as an explanation for potential mechanism of homeopathic action? (Again, if we presuppose that it does have an "action", as a hypothetical scenario.) So it seems to me that what the article is saying is that these ions become separated from the molecules during the early dilution stages, and then with subsequent dilutions the molecules become so rare as to eventually be considered absent, but the separated ions persist regardless of number of dilutions. Am I misunderstanding what he wrote, or am I understanding him correctly but his science is wrong, or am I understanding correctly and his science is correct but it still ends up being meaningless in the context of homeopathy? I'm not trying to be sneaky or play devil's advocate or anything. I really appreciate your responses. Thank you also EdEarl, but we are talking about something quite different than normal herbalism.

Thank you John! So are you saying that when the dilutions get to the point beyond Avogadro, the lack of molecules also means that there will no longer be any associated measurable electrically charged ions? (Other than what you would normally find in water I mean.) Please don't underestimate my scientific ignorance!

Can anyone tell me if the premise of this article makes sense? I do not have a chemistry background and am not scientifically educated enough to know. I'm not asking about the validity of homeopathy in general, just whether this idea of ions remaining after dilution makes sense as a possible mechanism of action if homeopathy were presumed to work, as a given. https://johnbenneth.wordpress.com/2016/01/15/chemistry-of-homeopathy-and-the-fda/ Thank you to anyone who takes the time to help me interpret this.