samtheflash82

google?

this is not true. at all. Merged post follows: Consecutive posts mergedI was given a very similar equation to this again today. It was exactly the same as the one in the OP except at the step where you have [math](a+b)(a-b)=0[/math], the person divided the 0 by the [math]a-b[/math], and ended up with [math]a=-b[/math] therefore [math]1=-1[/math]. Am i right about the flaw being with the division? I mean, since [math]a=b[/math], wouldn't dividing by [math]a-b[/math] be the same as dividing by zero, which is "forbidden"?

making a real "thermos" is going to be extremely difficult, if not impossible using household items. This is because a true thermos has 2 layers, the outer is a shiny, reflective layer to prevent radiant heat loss, the inner is an insulated layer to prevent conductive heat loss. Between the two is the tricky part; there is a vacuum to prevent convective heat loss. Creating a vacuum using household items is not feasible. Tell that to your teacher.

I am a bit confused by this. Here is the equation: [math] a=b[/math] [math]a^{2}=b^{2}[/math] [math]a^{2}-b^{2}=0[/math] [math](a+b)(a-b)=0[/math] [math]a=b,-b[/math] let [math]a=1[/math] [math]1=1,-1 [/math] I understand that this cannot be true but why does it work algebraically? To my understanding, if [math] a=b [/math], than [math] a^{2}=b^{2}[/math] but if [math] a^{2}=b^{2} [/math], than [math] a\neq b [/math] What am I not understanding?

but people dont seem to realize this. many people (without a firm understanding of relativity perhaps?) seem to think that time travel is impossible, yet it clearly is not so.

hmm, Chronic Wasting Disease?

Well I guess my wording was bad. What I mean is, since noone has travelled back in time, the effects, if any, that Chaos Theory might have, are unknown, and therefore basically irrelevant.

The idea of the cosmic bounce seems implausible to me. We can assume that such a bounce would be caused by the gravitational pull of all the universe's matter pulling it back to together into a singularity where the laws of physics as we know them are seemingly shuffled and changed randomly. This means that when the next "big bang" in the cycle occurs, the laws of physics will have inevitably changed enough to disallow another "big crunch".

Is the Chaos Theory relevant when it comes to time travel in terms of relativity? Let me lay out an example. A person (A) has figured out a way to go back in time. He travels back in time and somehow prevents his own conception. According to the Chaos Theory, he should simply blink out of existence, but I think not. He has traveled back in time, yes, but his actions in the past will have no bearing on the future that he left. It is true that if A prevents his own conception, he will not be born in this time, but he was still born in another time. I think of it as a sort of parallel universe. In the same way that a 2-dimensional "being" can go from one place to another via the 3rd dimension, a time traveler can go from one time to another, via the 5th dimension, which is, in effect, jumping from one set of possible futures, to another completely different set. This video should help you understand what I mean.

this isnt really the right place for this but short answer to your question is: no. since noone has ever travelled back in time, the chaos theory has never been proven. therefore it cannot be used to disprove any other theory, being that it is an unproven theory itself.

i worked on this for about an hour and i think i got the correct answer. could someone PM me?

you could try to looking at the references or external links on wikipedias article on conic sections.

ah, my mistake. you are right.

when you travel at speeds approaching that of light, is that not similar to traveling through time? i mean, lets say you leave earth on your near light speed journey and when you return, you will have experienced less time on the spaceship than people have on earth according to relativity. isn't that time travel? sorry if this is an obvious question but i have seen lots of people asking if "time travel" was possible.

i thought that for the KE formula to work, you had to first convert kilograms into newtons by multipleying the number of kg by 9.8, which would give you the mass in newtons and once you multiply it by the velocity squared, you would get a number in newtonmeters, aka joules.

thats basically what i was wondering about with antimatter. i guess since anti matter does have positive mass, that youre right. do you think there could be a negative mass such as sort of going past a singularity?

my uncle worked on a project similar to this in south africa. basically the wheel was turned with repelling electro-magnets. the problem was that there was no reliable braking system or acceleration system. the speed could not be controlled.

so this is a hypothesis i had concerning gravity and so called antigravity. it is my understanding that every object with any mass has a gravitational pull. it seems that for any type of true antigravity, an object would need to have a negative amount of mass. this of course seems impossible but then i started thinking about it more and thought of an interesting idea that involves antimatter. im not exactly sure how antimatter works but it seems that since mass is the amount of matter an object has, would an amount of antimatter mean that you had negative, or "antimass?" if you would get a type of "antimass" wouldnt that generate a force that was opposite that of gravity? if this works could we harness this "antigravity" without the antimatter and normal matter annihilating each other?