bsvineeth2009

Hi everyone. My name is Vineeth . Iam too Science holic. We can share our discoveries with us and become good friends. I love u all my dear friennds!!! Merged post follows: Consecutive posts mergedI have a doubt. ' I will present my hypothesis will u express ur opinions? Please Analyse my calculations...pls.. Force of Influence between energies: According to the Universal Gravitational Law by Newton, any two bodies of masses ‘m1‘ and ‘m2‘ separated by a distance ‘r’ have a Force of Attraction(Fm) given by: Fm = G. (m1 m2)/r2 --- (1) If there are two charges each ‘q1’ and ‘q2’ separated by a distance ‘r’ then the force of attraction or repulsion between the two charges in free space is: Fc = (4 0)-1. (q1q2/r2) --- (2) There is attraction force between two masses, and we also know that mass and energy are inter-related and also charge is a kind of energy. So there must be some Force of Influence (Fe) between any two energies of different kind. Let us consider two point concentrated energies E1 and E2 of different kinds or of the same kind. All the energy obtained to us is mainly from Sun. In fact, the energy in the space is also due to conversion of some celestial mass. Therefore in this context, Albert Einstein’s Mass-Energy Equivalence Relation is applicable. So any energy in the universe corresponds to some mass which has been converted into energy by some nuclear reaction. So by Einstein’s Equation: E = m. c2  m = E/c2 --- (3) On substituting ‘m1’, ‘m2’ in equation (1) by ‘m’ in equation (3), then we get; Fe= (G/c4). (E1 E2/r2) --- (4) Let the constant here (i.e. G/c4) obtained be named as Constant of Influence represented by . On substituting the values of G and c in the constant obtained, = G/c4  8.22222 x 10-45 Nm2/J2. So, in the equation (4), if E1 = 1J, E2 = 1J and r = 1m then the equation becomes: Fe =  8.22222 x 10-45 N So, this means that if there are two point concentrated energies (assuming that they are at rest) each of 1J separated by a distance of 1m then the force (of attraction or influence) is approx.  8.22222 x 10-45 N between them. Let these energies move at velocities v1, v2 and let their Lorentz’s Factors be: γ1, γ2. Then γ1= (1-(v12/c2))-1/2 and γ2= (1-(v22/c2))-1/2. Then; Fe= (G/c4). (E1 / γ1 ).(E2/ γ2).(1/ r2 ) --- (5) ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------By Vineeth-------------

Let us consider a particle in air. When light falls on it in one direction , it oscillates perpendicular to the direction of the light wave since it is a transverse wave. When sound passes through a particle through rarefractions and compressions, the particle oscillates in parallel to the direction of the sound wave since it is a longitudinal wave. But if both these waves pass through the same particle in one direction at the same time , then the particle should vibrate parallely and also perpendicularly to the direction of the wave. But at a time the particle can move only in one way. So if the vibration of the particle is neither perpendicular nor parallel in which direction will it oscillate? And if the vibration is disturbed , then the passing of light or sound must be disturbed. What is the correct reasoning for this?