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Arkeyn

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  1. Arkeyn
    (E)=1(E·V1 /(U·I1) (E)E2 (Q2) where E=Eq(L) V1=Eq(V1-U-I) U1=Eq(U1-II) II=Eq(II-U2-1) (Eq(1)) = 2l/E (Eq(2)) = (1)(E0). = 2l/E U0=Eq(V0-E1-U1-I) I0=Eq(I0-II0-U2-1) (1)E = Eq(2) (2)E = Eq(4) (Equal): (1) E = Eq(3) In conclusion, For whatever reason this formula is so easy to apply to anything, that I would be curious to know, why it works with "nothing"?
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