Andrew26

If 1/infinity is the number that when multiplied by infinity equals 1, then the number is 1/infinity. To arrive at you would multiply (infinity)*(1/infinity)=infinity/infinity which does technically equal 1, but it does also technically equal 2 or and any other positive real. There 1/infinity should be treated as undefined.

If 0^0=1, then 0^-1 equals (0^0)/(0^1)=1/0 and 0^1=(0^0)*(0^1)=1*0=0 Therefore (1/0)*(0)=0/0 which does not equal just 1. Showing our original assumption that 0^0 equals 1, and only 1 is a fallacy.

As stated in the OP, 1/0 equals +/-infinity as a limit. Your post is impertinent here

The question here is what is b/0.

If a/b is greater than 1, than it's unique reciprocal or multiplicative inverse b/a shall be less than 1 but greater than 0, for any real quotient a/b greater than 1.

If it we're then adding white milk to it would make a grey drink, not a light brown one.

It can be shown that as x approaches 0 from the right side, 1/x will approach 1/0 and apporach positive infinity. And it can be shown that as -x approaches 0 from the left side, -1/x will approach negative infinity and apporach -1/0, which is equal to (-1/-1)*-1/0 equals 1/0, since 0 is neither positive or negative. Showing that 1/0 is not even a number, and does not represent a distinct point on the real number line.

I posted as "Realintruder" this thread is the only webpage known in the internet that discusses the fact that there are exactly as many number in-between 0 and 1, as 1 and infinity. Andrew Stephenson

What is infinity+i, infinity i+1 and infinity i+infinity? i being the square root of -1 - the imaginary unit.