Simmer

https://www.phil.uu.nl/~iemhoff/Mijn/Slides/seattle17.pdf intuitional logic

without causing QT syndrome your best bet is to add Kv11.1 to a bond of the potassium channels in hERG

I have one #AI def x (): all(Q) |= set(Q is none) >>= any(a) |= set(none) is V is a is (Q.intersection(V is a)) def p (): while X <= 2: X = X + 1 any(x()) in X(p(x()) is 0) or all(x()) in X(p(x()) is 1) q="" while True: i=32 while i < 126: i= i + 1 a = chr(i) p() if 1: q = q + a elif 0: q = q if q == q + "": break print (q) x() and p() have syntax errors I have no idea about granted some more time thinking might help but its good to get out there

Run current through a fruit it makes sodium. Serious. Okay so I haven’t tested it out, but it’s a damn good guess

Mirror the interrupts and repeat them in the rest of your code

This can be done with laxatives and a sauna. Once the crud is out, you will gain coordination in affected areas. You might not need to eat again, but for all intents and purposes don’t get eaten alive by crud.

Earlier I mentioned the absolute infinite but I failed to clarify: ∀X:Φ(X)→∃α:ΦVα(X∩Vα) should replace x in the omniscient principle ^^^

Lol I’d take the wheels out of the cart and attach them to it if I were them...

Well obviously if all instances of x equal true then x is true and if only some instances of x exist but some don’t then x is false this means god as x can be thought of under the same terms, under the same similarity of x after being defined as either true or false respectively but what is the similarity of the two, truth and falsehood, that lead to a definite conclusion is it indicated in the equation already? Does the simple indication of truth and falsehood mean that the truth and falsehood is known? https://quantumcomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/5273/how-can-quantum-computing-win-97-of-times-in-coin-flipping-experiment?rq=1 this seemed not entirely related but still involved the same concepts

I noted this one did not embed the function into itself whats the difference?

https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/principle+of+omniscience here’s a simpler one...

So if I were to replace x with Ω, would the equation be able to distinguish itself to be god or bad

I was browsing the web and I came across something which claimed to be the principle of omniscience: for every function p: X → 2, ∃x ∈ X(p(x) = 0) ∨ ∀x ∈ X(p(x) = 1) I thought it looked interesting, but I can’t seem to make out just exactly how it works... is this something one can use in conjunction with absolute infinite? or is it spam... any input gladly taken. -Oliver