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Everything posted by Genady
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This scenario breaks the laws of electrodynamics. It breaks the law of energy conservation. Etc. If such a scenario possible, the physics is all wrong.
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Magnetism and electricity are effects of electromagnetic field. Light is waves in this field. Photons are excitations of this field.
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The electron travelling faster than light in water does not break any physics because physics in fact says that it cannot move faster than the speed of light in vacuum. Light itself does not set a limit. The limit is the speed, c. Light and any other massless particle move in vacuum with this speed, c. This is the connection to the "speed of light."
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Yes, it does. The electrons in your "phone", in the past, start moving without a physical cause.
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Yes, it does.
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OK, next time. When the object is something more interesting than soul. DNA, for example.
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How can I know what is a metaphorical DNA?
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If you write it down, it exists on paper, which is outside of our brain.
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May it be this: Unsolved Problems in Number Theory (Problem Books in Mathematics, 1): Guy, Richard: 9780387208602: Amazon.com: Books
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Humans create lighthearted things of this type, which, contrary to the ChatGPT's compilations, are not empty of content. See, for example, Picasso at the Lapin Agile - Wikipedia:
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Yes, you're right. That was how it started. However, I did not discuss her claims as I did not see the video. (Perhaps this led to this thread being split.) I wanted to point out that causality violation appears in SR as a result of FTL also without a signal being sent back in time.
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No, I don't. I know that causality is violated. Assuming that a 'signal' moves faster than light leads to violation of causality. This is my whole point. See the OP here: https://www.scienceforums.net/topic/130520-paradox-split-from-is-ftl-actually-possible/
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The Lorentz transformation gives times of the same two events in another observer's frame knowing their times and coordinates in the first observer's frame.
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Yes, it took time 1 in the A's frame: the signal left the source at time ts=0 and arrived at the target at time tr=1.
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Let's say some signal moves with twice the speed of light in observer A's frame. It is sent, the event S, at time ts=0 from the origin xs=0. At the time tr=1 it arrives at the distance coordinate xr=2, where a detector blows a bomb. This is event R. Observer B moves with the speed v=3/5 c along the x axis, with their x axes and origins coincide. In the B's frame, the event S occurs at ts'=0, xs'=0. The event R in his frame occurs at tr' = gamma*(tr - v*xr/c2) = 5/4 * (1 - 6/5) = -1/4 i.e., 1/4 before the event S.
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If that person received the signal while moving, yes, according to this person as well.
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According to my research, men can basically get sex more or less when they wish, just as Also, women ask, and men choose as commonly as In general, my data support the old Russian proverb, "любовь зла, полюбишь и козла" (love is evil - makes one love even a goat; note that the noun "goat" in the proverb is masculine.)
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Thy signal is received before it is sent.
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In the paradox I've described, no signal is sent backward in time.
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How come? Let's say events A and B are spacelike separated. Then there are observers moving with a normal, i.e., < c, speed for whom event B occurs before event A. If A is sending a signal and B is its receiving, then for these observers, the signal is received before it is sent. Isn't it a causal paradox?
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If it is programmed / trained to throw away the wheat and to keep the chaff, it will do it as well.
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Macro scale acid? What does it mean?
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I've noticed that the current spam posts appear in quick successions. Is it possible to limit new members to 1 post per 10 minutes for the first day? It would take about an hour to post the 5 allowed posts.