Genady

g/G has units of mass per area. 1 AU is a distance. How can they be equal?

They are both plausible definitions, but the second one has a problem, IMO, that it requires some definition of God, and this is problematic. The first definition, OTOH, does not require it and thus is easily tested. The second definition leads to farther confusions about 'which God don't you believe in?', 'does it include Buddha?', 'is Jesus God?', 'can you prove that God does not exist?', etc. OTOH, the first definition only needs to look at the list of things I believe in - which is not very long and definitely finite - and to check that there is no God on this list.

Of course, they don't. That's why we tried to point out the wrong assumptions in your calculations which led to the wrong conclusion that they do.

I wish. +1

I'm starting to think your arguments are less than logical.

This is even worse. Now you decide for other people what their opinion should've been. I show that your argument is illogical. Of course I don't argue it, because there is no way to logically argue an illogical argument. Here is another example of how illogical your argument is. There, you talked about atheists. Now, you replace it with the attacks on religion.

Only if you stick with the second definition.

Exactly. As for me, for the most of my life I thought that the first definition is the accepted one. Only discussions in this forum convinced me that most members rather relate to the second one. Since then, I don't call myself an atheist, at least not in this forum.

Variable substitution is not a logical fallacy. Your downvote of my post is a bad mark on you.

You make them to glow.

All electric and magnetic phenomena.

They interact with charged particles.

I have an idea how interference of two waves moving with the speed c can result in a wave moving with a speed v < c, in principle. The two waves don't travel on the same line, like in the video, but at an angle, like here: The waves from A and from B interfere in such a way that the resulting wave appears in C. Each one moves with the speed c, but the resulting wave propagates with a slower speed v.

It was me that informed you (Are there other Versions of Fourth Dimensional Energies - Speculations - Science Forums). I said there that you were 150 years late. I did not say that you were correct. However, your conclusion stays: don't waste your time on this idea.

But he is talking there about two waves moving with different speeds. It is not the case here. Here we have two electromagnetic waves, and both have the same speed in vacuum. How do they add up to a slower wave?

Where does he say that? (time stamp)? 4:51 This is my problem, too. I'm looking for a better explanation, if there is one.

I don't believe it. I'd love to see that math. The Fermilab video linked above says that this explanation is wrong. Do you think they are wrong?

The direction of the resultant wave is different. Why the speed would be different, though? I don't see how they could. They are not. They are moving in all directions, I think. Another questions in relation to this. Let's assume for simplicity that the primary wave is monochromatic. Is the resultant wave monochromatic? If so, what is different about it, i.e., wavelength, frequency, or both?

Right, it shows that the amplitude changes. It does not explain why the speed changes, though, does it? Also, there are no slow and fast waves there, as both waves are electromagnetic and thus both move with the speed of light. Right?

I watched the video. I did not see an explanation why it actually slows down. It just says it does. Why the sum of these two waves, let's call them primary and secondary, moves slower than the primary one?

How come that your English suddenly improved so much? Your writing style completely changed, too. You are not the same person who posted previously under this name.

This is how your logic goes: It's a genuine paradox: Atheist/"arelionist", whatever, state's as a matter of fact, there is no such thing as Santa. (Edit let's not get into semantics here.) So therefore, in a world without Santa, the children's books and the idea's therein have to be written by man and accepted by their fellow man. So therefore, if a lot of people, even in the face of cultural difference, say "that's an idea worth following". No Santa needed. Therefore, Santa has become a weapon for atheism/<insert word>.

Please, do. I'd prefer a fresh thread for this.

Yes. The interval between two events on B's timeline is the B's elapsed time between these two events. Likewise, the interval between two events on C's timeline is the C's elapsed time between these two events.

Generally, not. The metric of the diagram is not Euclidean. It has Minkowski metric. IOW, the "length" squared between two events on the diagram is not dt2+dx2. It is dt2-dx2. For example, the "length", called "interval", between any two events on a light line (450 line) is 0. IOW, the units on the lines belonging to different frames are not equal.