As I already said: "This can not be calculated in terms of standard point-based observational or theoretical measurements (such as planck units), because the objective nature of the phenomenon defies observation."
Again, I am suggesting that you consider that the fundamental assumptions under which you are operating are the source of the conceptual barrier theoretical physics has faced since the time of Einstein.
Planck units are theoretical units that were concocted in relation to observed physical constants, such that a unit of each constant would be equal to one, correct? I.e. light travels at a speed of one Planck length per Planck time?
It is assumed that measurements of these constants can be made objectively in relation to observation, even given what we all know to be the natural limitations of observation that can not be transcended.
If we acknowledge that observation is necessarily limited, it follows logically that any measurement derived from observation would inherit those limitations.
Again, consequently, it follows that no such thing as Planck units can be known objectively to exist (even given their obvious theoretical importance) because no objectively accurate measurement of said constants can be made in terms of observation. You are placing an artificial constriction on the origin of the Universe in terms of mathematics as you understand it, and you are declaring this to be objective when nothing could be further from the truth. As I have already explained and demonstrated, you are operating on a series of theoretical assumptions that you can not prove, and it seems furthermore that you do not comprehend the theoretical nature of the assumptions that you are making or even that these assumptions are implicit in your statements.
But a DeBroglie wave still still describes probability, right? Specifically the relative probability of finding a particle at a given point within a configuration space?
Furthermore, as the velocity of a particle approaches zero (rest) the de Broglie wavelength approaches infinity, correct?
Now assume just for a moment that what I'm saying is correct, and the singularity is a gravitational wave in spacetime with no upwards limit in frequency.
As opposed to the Universe spontaneously emerging from a point, we now can see the universe as an infinite progression expanding from a common space (what we call "origin").
In this understanding it would follow that one could estimate the probability of finding a particle at a given point in space, but never measure with perfect accuracy where that point is, because there is no objectively real zero point ("origin point") to use as reference, even though there appears to be.
Am I missing something?