externo

I remame this topic as : "Proof that Einstein Special Relativity is false because the one-way speed of light is not invariant. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/One-way_speed_of_light

The speed of light is not isotropic in all inertial frames and the true physical transformations are Euclidean and not hyperbolic. This means that Einstein's isotropy hypothesis is invalidated and that Lorentz's theory is the only valid one.

https://physicsdiscussionforum.org/viewtopic.php?p=28798#p28798

Correct, but how do you explain that acceleration produces a blueshift and redshift from the point of view of the one accelerating if it does not change its speed relative to the waves? ---------------------------------------- The equivalence principle only works inside the rocket, without the possibility of seeing what is happening outside. You just need to study the blueshift and redshift that emanate from inside the rocket. It is only local, which is why we cannot resolve the twin paradox within the framework of general relativity.

It is the part where it says "No twin paradox in an absolute frame of reference" https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Twin_paradox#No_twin_paradox_in_an_absolute_frame_of_reference It takes away his absolute immobility, he becomes stationary for everyone, it no longer has any state of motion ---------------------------- Who cares what you states ? it has no authority, unlike a public text read and corrected by dozens of people including university professors. You don't seem to know that a non-inertial frame changes speed relative to the outside world while a gravitational field is stationary. ------------------------------ The path you speak of is the elapsed time in the traveler's frame of reference, the fact that it is a path in space-time is a mathematical invention, not a physical reality. All we can deduce is that an object that moves MORE in space ages less. But there can exist a unique reference frame relative to which the speed of light is c, and therefore it would make sense to talk about the speed relative to waves because it would depend on the chosen measurement reference frame, if this is not the unique reference frame, this speed will be different from c. This is Lorentz theory. A gravitational field is stationary, an acceleration is not. In a gravitational field time flows more or less quickly in space, in an acceleration time always flows in the same way in space, the object which accelerates does not have the power to change the the flow of time around it, what's more, the Doppler effect perceived by the one accelerating is a kinematic Doppler effect and not a gravitational one, it comes from the fact that the objects move in relation to it.

The mathematics simply says that the traveling twin's own time is shorter, it explains nothing. Moreover, the path taken by the twin is longer and not shorter, what is shorter is its proper time. You can call proper time a "path" if you please, that's not why it will be a real one, show me this "path" in the sky if you can. Yet, Wikipedia says that there is a paradox except in the case where we postulate a privileged reference frame. How do you know that there is no preferred reference frame where the light is isotropic? You can't know. There is no gravitational field in an accelerated frame of reference, we are in flat space-time, the distance between the accelerating object and the stars varies unlike in a gravitational field, the Doppler effect is therefore kinematic, not gravitaionnel. ---------------------------- I wrote "This is also how Einstein saw it, he thought that there was an ether which was stationary for everyone." It is called the relativistic aether, but it is also a luminiferous ether, it is the Lorentz ether deprived of its state of motion.

You don't know anything about it: https://mathshistory.st-andrews.ac.uk/Extras/Einstein_ether/ He later changed his mind.

When we say that the speed of light is invariant with respect to all frames of reference, it is as if all frames of reference were the frame of the ether. This is also how Einstein saw it, he thought that there was an ether which was stationary for everyone. So the observer is always at rest and the object observed is in motion. The relativistic Doppler effect is therefore postulated as always produced by the observed object. LTs do not contain any indication of the speed relative to light because they are symmetrical and we cannot distinguish this speed. I gave the calculations. ----------------------------- I can't stop because you really don't understand relativity. You don't even know that the hypothesis of the invariance of the speed of light is a useless hypothesis for the theory, and that it only serves to get rid of the ether. ------------------------------- Time is not physical, so you don't age? Why would the wavelength decrease?

https://fr-m-wikipedia-org.translate.goog/wiki/Effet_Doppler?_x_tr_sl=fr&_x_tr_tl=en&_x_tr_hl=fr&_x_tr_pto=wapp#Calcul_relativiste_rapide

It's simple: we synchronize the clocks according to Einstein's procedure so that the one-wat speed of light is measured constant. If this speed is physically constant, the synchronization must indicate the physical time. As each inertial frame has a different synchronization this means that the simultaneity is physically different in each frame. If you think that simultaneity is not physical you also think that the constant one-way speed of light is not physical. So, you see, his speed is not constant relative to the waves... I'm not saying that it doesn't happen as soon as they started moving toward earth, on the contrary, but for it to happen instantly they have to change speed in relation to the waves and therefore the speed of light cannot remain constant when they accelerate, therefore the postulate of the constancy of the speed of light cannot be true. That's all I'm saying. -------------------------------- So you don't have any explanation, you just stick to the math. You used Lorentz mathematics, they are the ones who mathematically resolved the paradox. As for EInstein, to show that he is right you have to prove that the one-way speed of light is constant, which the Dopller effect denies. Why does the frequency of the signal increase as soon as it turns around? Because it is he who causes this increase in the signal by changing its speed relative to the waves. For its part, the Earth must wait for the redshift to propagate at the speed of light to it because its velocity relative to the waves don't change, this is what causes the asymmetry: the speed of light changes relative to the twin which turns around but not relative to the Earth. ---------------------------- The relativistic Doppler effect is calculated assuming that the receiver or transmitter is stationary relative to the medium. In classical physics, if we assume that the receiver is moving, it receives the waves emitted by the source at the frequency: fr = fe (1- v/c) = fe (1- β) with fr = reception frequency and fe emitter frequency If we assume that it is the source which moves, fr = fe/(1+ v/c) = fe/(1+ β) If we add the time dilation factor y² = 1/(1-β²) if we assume that it is the receiver which moves: fr = fe (1- β) * y = sqrt( (1-β)/(1+β)) fe if we assume that it is the transmitter which moves: fr = fe (1- β) / y = sqrt( (1-β)/(1+β)) fe https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Effet_Doppler#Calcul_relativiste_rapide https://fr-m-wikipedia-org.translate.goog/?_x_tr_sl=fr&_x_tr_tl=en&_x_tr_hl=fr&_x_tr_pto=wapp&_x_tr_hist=true#Calcul_relativiste_rapide So the result is identical. If, in classical physics, we assume that the object which moves relative to the medium undergoes time dilation, there is no longer any way to distinguish observationally whether it is the source or the receiver which moves relative to the medium. The relativistic Doppler effect is therefore symmetrical in classical kinematics and we cannot deduce from it that the medium does not exist, but simply that there is observational symmetry and not physical symmetry. And why does the turning twin not need to wait for the signal emitted from Earth to propagate to him before observing the blueshift? He instantly observes it when he turns around because it is he who changes speed in relation to the waves.

The invariance on a round trip involves length contraction and time dilation, not the invariance in a one-way trip, which is a postulate of Einstein which has no other use than to eliminate the privileged frame of reference . Epicycles are a mathematical construction that does not correspond to physical reality, "the sun revolves around the Earth" is another. If the speed of light is physically invariant by change of frame of reference then instead simultaneity must vary physically. If you play to modify the laws of kinematics you must assume the consequences.

It's simple reasoning. The theory imposes an ether naturally. The speed of light is constant relative to the ether. Now to remove this ether, we must postulate that the speed is invariant with respect to all frames of reference, but this requires that this invariance be physical, otherwise it is only a mathematical construction, the speed of light still changes and there still exists an ether. It turns out that this hypothesis of physical invariance requires that the Earth ages suddenly, that's how it is. It's pure nonsence but it's not my theory. The invariance of the one-way speed of light is not measurable, what is measurable is the invariance of the speed over a round trip, and Lorentz and Einstein both predict this invariance. ------------------------------- It's simple reasoning. The theory imposes an ether naturally. The speed of light is constant relative to the ether. Now to remove this ether, we must postulate that the speed is invariant with respect to all frames of reference, but this requires that this invariance be physical, otherwise it is only a mathematical construction, the speed of light still changes and there still exists an ether. It turns out that this hypothesis of physical invariance requires that the Earth ages suddenly, that's how it is. It's pure nonsence but it's not my theory. But do you think general relativity spacetime is physical? That's the real question. Because I claim it's just a non-physical mathematical model. The physical model is here: But this is precisely the example I gave in the first message to show that Einstein's interpretation was false:

Well, we can't drop it, that's my point. I gave in my first message the reason why I think the aether (or rather a preferred frame) is necessary for the physical coherence of the theory. ------------------------------- When I say that the journey of the traveling twin is inertial it is because I assume that the change of direction occurs in a very short time. Once the change of direction is completed the journey is inertial there is no doubt about it. But you don't really answer, Lorentz's theory allows you to explain step by step what happens during the entire trip. Einsetin postulates that the speed of light is invariant in all frames of reference, this is a postulate of serious consequence, because it implies that there is a PHYSICAL change in simultaneity. You have to replace the PHYSICAL variation in the speed of light with something PHYSICAL, so in his version, when the twin turns around, the Earth suddenly PHYSICALLY ages, and this is not observed experimentally. Please understand that the only difference between Lorentz and Einstein is that Einstein gets rid of the privileged frame of reference by postulating the constancy of the one-way speed of light. That's not Minkowski spacetime. Now see: if Minkowski spacetime is physical, the moment the twin turns around, the Earth suddenly ages relative to it, but this does not appear experimentally, the signal emanating from the Earth does not suddenly age. The experiment contradicts that space-time is physical. If, on the other hand, you think that Minkowski spacetime is not physical, then only space is physical and therefore the speed of light can only be constant with respect to space.

Lorentz transformations were derived with the assumption of an ether. Without this assumption they are not derivable in classical kinematics. Einstein derived them by assuming the speed of light to be constant in all inertial frames, which is not classical kinematics. I claim in this thread that if you deprive yourself of classic cinematics you are not consistent with the physical world.

You are very smart for reading, understanding and responding to my message in one minute. YOU are in bad faith.

Yes, you need an ether for Minkowski space to work in the real world. If an object accelerates and changes simultaneity the signals it receives from space always come from the same source than before, which does not change time, there is no change in physical simultaneity of space-time, therefore there is no time vector, it's just a scalar.

Lorentz transformations were derived with the idea that there was an aether and that the speed of light was constant relative to this aether. In order to remove the idea of the ether or at least remove its state of motion, we must add the condition that the speed of light is constant in both directions of motion in moving frames, unlike classical kinematics. This condition allows us to get rid of the idea of a fixed frame of reference for the universe. Einstein's interpretation is therefore eroneous if there is a preferred rest reference frame for the universe. ---------------------------------- You can take a look at the Euclidean version of Lorentz transformations, it imposes that there is an ether reference frame relative to which moving objects change their simultaneity. I don't think Lorentz's idea is obsolete; there are more and more studies on it these days. Energy needs a support to exist, it does not exist in a vacuum. I agree that length contraction may be an effect of perspective, but time dilation cannot be only that, because it would cancel out when the twin returns, just as his length returns to normal.

EUCLIDEAN LORENTZ TRANSFORMATIONS The factor γ has the value 1/γ = sqrt (1-v²/c²) We can write this relation (1/γ)² + (v/c)² = 1/γ² + β² = 1 We can put 1/γ = cos θ and β = sin θ Contracted length =1/γ * proper length = cos θ * proper length Simultaneity shift = β * proper length = sin θ * proper length therefore the proper length is the hypothenuse of a triangle whose sides are cos θ * proper length and sin θ * proper length Hence the Pythagorean relation: Proper length² = Contracted length² + Simultaneity shift² Likewise Coordinate time ² = Proper time ² + Distance traveled² We recognize here the Minkowski metric: Proper time² = Coordinated time² – Distance traveled² These two relationships make it possible to highlight a Euclidean rotation of the space-time axes: Proper distance = dx' = cos θ * dx + sin θ * dx = 1/γ dx + β dt Proper time = dt' = cos θ * dt - sin θ * dt = 1/γ dt - β dx These are the Euclidean Lorentz transformations. They are not symmetrical and are reciprocal. This formula was first established by Gabriel LaFrenière: https://web.archive.org/web/20120228112717im_/http://glafreniere.com/images/lorentz03c.gif In this new version the proper time is therefore the time coordinate of the moving object in the same way as the proper length is its space coordinate, and not the space-time distance as in Minkowski spacetime. Additionally, the mathematics being Euclidean, what is drawn on the paper corresponds to the actual lengths. Here is a graphical comparison of the two methods: TR is one dimentional aether. T is Earth and R is another planet. They are assumed to be almost immobile in the ether. F is a rocket, to which we have attached its rotated space-time axes. We see that the distance dL² is measured by the rocket as a distance dx² + dt², this is the observational space contraction. We also see that from the point of view of F, T is located in the past and R in the future, but it is only the coordinates that change and not the objects. By contrast Minkowski space-time represent T and T' as well as R and R', which is the block universe: instead of simply changing the coordinates of the objects Minkowski space-time change the objects themselves. So there is confusion, hyperbolic mathematics is misleading. Where does symmetry come from? When you are in the moving system and you use the rotated time axes, you measure the lengths of space and time shorter than they are. This is a perspective effect due to rotation. The moving object projects the real lengths of space and time onto its fictitious axes. One thing to note: the new space-time axes aren't really fictional. Matter in motion is transformed, and with this transformation these new space-time axes are associated. Einstein's error was to believed that all of space-time was changing simultaneously when it was in fact only the moving object. Thus the symmetric Lorentz equations only indicate the coordinates measured in the frames of reference, they are symmetrical because the measurements are symmetrical, but this symmetry is simply the symmetry associated with the measurements between two coordinate systems rotated relative to each other. To achieve such a result it is necessary to consider that there is an immutable privileged frame of reference and that the time of moving objects is only a local time. So there is no block universe. Time is not a vector either, it is a dimension of space, the scalar dimension of Hamilton's quaternions which represents the density of the ether. Accelerating amounts to performing a Euclidean rotation in space-time which is also a contraction of the ether. This representation is more than a mathematical model, it is a physical model of space-time and I think it conforms to the algebra of physical space. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebra_of_physical_space

So you consider that the change in simultaneity is physical, that's not what the others say. If it is physical it implies that the Earth suddenly ages for real during the U-turn Sorry, but the SR spacetime metric is the Minkowski metric, there are no others. We can write it in another form but it remains the Minkowski metric. If you read the article you will see that it is explicitly written that there is a physical problem of discontinuity in space-time. I will propose in my next message another model which gives the same result and which is Euclidean, non-symmetrical, and which works within the framework of Lorentz theory. So math agrees with Lorentz but not with Einstein. Einstein claims that the traveling twin ages less than Earth during the inertial journey, unless he claims nothing at all, in which case he doesn't even have a theory but a simple paraphrase of the equations. I really don't understand this, especially since the acceleration period can be reduced to an infinitely short time. The journey of the traveling twin is then reduced to two inertial journeys. Energy is a frame-dependent quantity due to difference in speed between frames of reference. If the the frequency of the electromagnetic signal increases, it is because the one accelerating has changed its velocity in relation to the signal or because the one who emitted the signal has changed is velocity in relation to the signal.

Yes, so Einstein removes the ether reference frame so that there is actual physical symmetry. My point is that by removing it we can no longer explain the observed phenomena. ---------------------------- I will show you another mathematical formulation which agrees with Lorentz's point of view and which is not symmetrical. But I recognize that Lorentz made the mistake of not looking for it himself and of being content with symmetrical equations. There was a tendency, when seeing symmetrical equations, to think that the physical world was like the equations.

Same symmetry relations involving signals sent between A to B and B to A but not same underlying reality. ------------------------ That's what he says in the quote I gave. If the speed of light is constant relative to the person accelerating, how can he perceive a redshift? Redshift is the manifestation of a change in speed between light and the accelerating one. ---------------------------- LET explains the physical origin of symmetry, SR explains nothing. I can provide a non-symmetric formulation of Lorentz transformations which helps to better understand the situation. In this formulation a change of frame of reference is a Euclidean rotation. We then understand geometrically where the symmetry comes from. I'll prepare this.

Symmetry is included in the equations, but this symmetry is not real; the equations do not get to the bottom of things. Lorentz reveals the hidden truth while Einstein is content to note the symmetry. The ether model explains the apparent symmetry by a real asymmetry, while Einstein claims that the symmetry is physical and therefore that the traveling twin ages less than the Earth during the outward journey. ------------------------------------------ Einstein claims the symmetry is reality :

I agree with that. Only, I think Einstein claims that the symmetry is physical and even if he doesn't claim it he doesn't explain anything. On the other hand, Lorentz explains the physics behind this symmetry, we can account for it if we assume a frame of reference with respect to which light is isotropic. So Lorentz explains relativity by a physical theory while Einstein explains nothing. His postulate of the invariance of the speed of light is not a physical postulate it is simply the consequence of the Einstein-Poincaré synchronization, and this synchronization is also a feature of Lorentz's theory, but Lorentz does not establish it as a physical principle, but only as the consequence of synchronization. Now, my main argument here was that the one who accelerates sees the redshift immediately while the one who doesn't move has to wait for it to propagate to him because it emanates from the one who accelerates. It is at this moment that there is a dyssimetry and that we can understand that it exists in fact a privileged frame of reference. ------------------------- Relativity is not based on the invariance of the speed of light, only Einstein's interpretation is. If you postulate this invariance you cannot account for the redshift so this invariance is not true.

There are two possibilities, either the Earth is aging suddenly, or it's just an artifact, but then that's Lorentz's explanation. You are mixing the interpretations of Einstein and Lorentz. Einstein's interpretation is literal and during the half-turn the Earth really ages in relation to the traveler, Einstein tried to explain this by a gravitational field produced by acceleration. If you do not accept this idea it is because you accept Lorentz. The problem is that mainstream physics has mixed everything up; it claims on the one hand that the change in simultaneity is not physical but on the other hand that space is relative. It's necessary to choose. For space to be relative, the change in simultaneity must be physical, otherwise we remain in the same simultaneity all the time and space is absolute. Analysis of the Doppler effect shows that there is no symmetry during the journey. When the twin turns around he perceives the redshift immediately because his acceleration is absolute and he changes speed relative to light. Lorentz transformations are misleading because they are symmetrical when reality is not. The symmetry of the Doppler effect is explained here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relativistic_Doppler_effect#Relativistic_longitudinal_Doppler_effect The principle of relativity of the Doppler effect is explained by physical reasons which make it impossible to distinguish motion in relation to the medium. When we add time dilation to the classic Doppler effect it becomes symmetrical,but that does not mean that there is no longer any motion in the classical sense, only that we cannot distinguish it. This is why the returning twin can consider that it is the Earth which ages less than him: the indications of the Doppler effect do not allow him to decide who is moving in relation to the medium. Einstein says it is always the observed object which moves and undergoes time dilation (thus the constancy of light relative to the observer), but this is a arbitrary idea. Lorentz respects classic kinematics and supposes that it can be both.

The acceleration is absolute, therefore the change in speed is absolute (Langevin said this). When the twin accelerates it creates a dyssimetry between the frames of reference, but how could this dyssimetry disappear as if by magic after the acceleration? Dyssimetry is always present, even during inertial journeys, that's what Lorentz says. Besides, you can make the acceleration as short as you want, it has no importance in itself, what matters is the consequent change in velocity. Think about it, if the accelerating twin sees the redshift it's because the speed of light is changing relative to him. During an acceleration there is a change in simultaneity. Do you think this change is physical or just mathematical? At the time of the U-turn, the Earth suddenly ages for the traveler. Do you think this aging is physical or mathematical? Do you think Minkowski spacetime is physical or only mathematical? Do you think the metric of an accelerated frame of reference is physical or only mathematical? Acceleration is nothing more than a change in velocity, so if it is absolute then the change in velocity is absolute. --------------------------- Inertia comes from the ether. When we accelerate the ether manifests itself as inertia. If the speed of light remains constant during an acceleration it is because there is a change in simultaneity. So haven't you understood how relativity works? Instead of the speed of light changing, it is simultaneity changing and the speed of light remaining constant. So if you believe in Einstein's interpretation you believe that there is a physical change in simultaneity. The article clearly establishes that there are physical discontinuities in Minkowski space and to correct them you need Selleri synchronization, which corresponds to choosing a reference frame of rest and sticking to it. You are confusing the map and the territory. You talk about paths in Minkowski spacetime as if it had a physical reality. Swanson himself claimed that time is not physical and that there is no chunk of space-time. The equations state that the traveling twin ages less, we agree on this, but this does not constitute a physical explanation. Also, he never gets “younger” - he just ages less. TRUE ! You see that the twin ages less over the duration of the entiere journey, which is Lorentz's interpretation. As soon as it leaves the Earth's frame of reference it begins to age less, so its perception of symmetry during the inertial journey is false. He believes that the Earth is aging less than him when in reality it is the opposite. That's all I'm saying. This is not consistent with Einstein's interpretation that the traveler ages less during interial travels.