how does the fact that the group is albelian help? I know that every cyclic group is abelian but in this case it is the subgroup that is cyclin. Does this proof need the basic prove-the-axioms-of-a-group approach or is it more complex?
If G is an abelian group and n>1 an integer, let A={a^n such that a E G}. Prove that A is a subgroup of G.
isn't the identity of A a^0 which does not fall under n>1
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