stratik

How does one define the "present" tense? Other than through perception I don't think it can be defined. There is no measurement of time small enough to account for its existence. If the present lacks any tangible definition, than past and future do as well, as they cease to have meaning without the midpoint that they are supposedly anchored to. So in this sense all three are occurring at once. This is why I feel perception may be the key to time travel. I visualize time as an analogue wave that we subconsciously agree to be stuck to when we perceive its motion. Theoretically I feel it should be possible to "get off of the ride?" By this I mean perceive existence from a motionless vantage point, ie without the illusion of past present and future. The problem with perception however is that it's relative to the individual doing the perceiving. So the challenge in time travel would be to get someone to perceive themselves onto a different point on the wave, while doing it in such a way that it could be appreciated by others.

Sir, what an excellent response. I'm sure I will have follow up questions, but I have much to chew on with your reply first

Very interesting. So what I'm getting is that quakes don't necessarily produce an exact opposing effect per se. They are simply registered across the globe. Now if seismic waves travel through the Earth, does that mean they register strongest or weakest on the opposite side? And if they register weakest, how do we know that waves have indeed passed through the planet, and not simply traveled around the circumference?

Navajo, I'm from San Francisco, if that's what you mean. What is morphic resonance? And Kaezon, interesting theory. My friend and I have speculated as to the cause of his "prophesy", and something similar to your theory has come up in conversation. We are convinced that what he experienced that morning must have been felt by others as well. I imagine an event of that magnitude would send quantum shockwaves far and wide.

This is a true story. My best friend woke up from a terrible nightmare at around 3am on the morning of September 11, 2001. He was dreaming that he was visiting New York when the World Trade Centers came under attack. In the dream he was killed as pieces of the building fell on him. When this actually occured hours later he was in complete shock. I suppose this could be explained as coincidence, but I believe there is probably a far more complex explanation, of which I am unable to provide.

Thanks for all the responses. Can anyone site a specific example of an earthquake on one side of the globe that led to a rictar scale measured quke on the opposite side? The 8 point quake that happened recently in Japan for instance....was there a reactionary aftershock in Europe?

I'm curious if anyone can direct me towards information regarding earthquake detection. What I primarily wish to know is if an earthquake occurs on one side of the globe, does it register on the opposite side? And if so, how?