DimaMazin

Theoreticaly no. Because velosity of the wave of the acceleration = (gamma +1)v/gamma For example gamma=2 v=31/2c/2 velosity of wave acceleration=3*31/2c/4 Local forces accelerate the train. Therefore no force travels faster than c. Why velosity of wave of acceleration can be faster than c? Because local forces don't need to wait when light crosses already contracted part of the train.

Correct. But not in my case. Because in my case the force of acceleration propagates from backward car to forward car at such velosity (I will define it) when the cars do not interact each other. There is no interaction between the cars therefore it is called by simultaneity. I have described the simultaneity by equation. Each railway carryage can have its engine. Therefore force of acceleration does not need to be transferred.

If we want to accelerate very long train, instantly accelerating each railway carryage into a moving frame at v, then we should accelerate them simultaneously in neutral simultaneity. t =to + (gamma -1)*x/(v*gamma)

Is that caused by delay of weapons for Ukraine?

Thanks. I thought black hole mass is defined without its KE like partcle mass. It deluded me.

Do you think 9 solar massis were emitted before the collision? Then what their KE was emitted before the collision?

If they fall directly toward each other then what mass would be after such collision? Why creation of gravitational waves ,before their collision, takes only their KE and no significant mass? Why creation of gravitational bubble,at the collision, takes only their mass and no significant KE?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/GW190521

Then the rest mass after collision should be = m1 + m2 - energy of gravitational bubble /c2 +KE/c2 But really mass=m1 +m2 - energy of gravitational bubble /c2 + 0 Why so?

Let's check your math. Ukraine missed only 1/4 part of missiles of 90 then how many missiles flew in Poland?

To check work of Patriot.

Ukraine has no missiles to attack far airfields. It is work of Biden. NATO is attacked by two missiles. Zero are downed of two. Ukraine shot down 73 missiles out of about 100. Who hump up?

I mean gamma' = 1/(1 - escape velocity2/c2)1/2 For example distance of the fall is 1 trillion kilometers. Mass of the black hole is minimal. There is no initial velocity of the object relative to the black hole. If the gamma' = about 1 million then let's consider next example when black hole whith minimal mass is falling into black hole with minimal mass. If their kinetic energy > 2 millions minimal mass of black hole *c2 then where does the energy go after their collision?

What is gamma factor of object, which is freely falling into black hole, on event horizon?

Submarine may be destroyed by torpedo or missile. Not always you can define the destroyer. Sivil war can left missiles in silos without sequrity. Apply of the weapon leds you to new weapon of stouns and sticks.😛What is scientific sence there?

Do you think nuklear weapon can be useful for Iran? Nuklear weapon is expensive and scientifically senceless. What is a sence to have the weapon when all have the same?

For informational support of attak also. The war, between Russia and Ukraine, determines who is fool, who has lost nuclear weapon or who has nuclear weapon.

If usual weapon can destroy your nuklear weapon on your land then is your nuklear weapon good for defense? Alredy nuklear weapon is scientificaly backward therefor it is problem for defense.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circular_sector When sin*cosin=1/4 then area of the one sector is Pi/24 and area of second sector is 5Pi/24

Unit circle has r=1. a is angle in radians. You have confused in your inattentiveness . (61/2 - 21/2)/4 = (2-31/2)1/2/2 21/2(31/2-1)/2=(2-31/2)1/2 (31/2-1)2/2=2-31/2 3-2*31/2+1=4-2*31/2

For example one circular sector of unit circle has area a/2, other circular sector has area Pi/4 - a/2 then a/2=sin(a)*cosin(a)/2 +(area of circular segment of angle 2a)/2 and Pi/4 - a/2 = sin(a)*cosin(a)/2+(area of circular segment of angle Pi - 2a)/2 Then area of the twq equal triangles is sin*cosin

(61/2 - 21/2)/4 = (2 - 31/2)1/2/2 I have taken sin * cos=1/4 then I have got sine=(2 - 31/2)1/2/2 or (2 + 31/2)1/2/2 Calculator has shown arcsin=15 degrees but sine 15 degrees=(61/2 - 21/2)/4 I don't understand how they are connected.

Rather that is wrong because t is not obligated to be proportional to ( Pi-2a)/2 at level 1.

The idea is wrong because next formula must work but it is not working t/(1-y)=sin t/(cos t -y) y=(t cost-sint)/(t-sint)