I am currently studying human evolution. There are questions currently puzzling me about the conclusions reached by archeologists from the evidence found by studying ancient skeletons
First a few musings..
Dogs have been bred for a couple of thousand years or so, a trivial period in evolutionary terms, yet they show a huge variation in shape, size, behaviours etc. I am aware that there are two forms of selection at work, natural selection and human selection, but it seems to me that hominids dont exhibit the same drastic variation in their organism even over vastly greater peridos of time. Over the period of time since Sahelanthropus tchadensis (say 7 million years) I would expect to find huge variations in the skeletal design according to climatic and living conditions - in the human ancestral pathway. From my knowledge of the current evidence, we see some variation but no pekinise bulldog or great dane like extremes - according to the narrative (with the only possible exception being homo floriensis). Rather the lineage is described as a very gradual change in brain size, bipediality (consequentiual effects on the skeleton), molars etc. Lifestyle and nutrition also has a significant effect on the skeletal composition. In the West we currently have an obesity epedemic and this has a signficant effect on the skeleton and this is in one or two generations. I would guess that the normative skeletal range has significantly shifted. When archeologists discover a skeleton from the remote past, for example Lucy, I find that many authors in the field tend to make many conclusions about the height and physique of the species from what could be an unrepresentative sample. I am sixty, my parents generation was significatly shorter than their sibilings this effect is over a single generation. Then there is the whole question of epigenetic switches. Lastly, i play piano and have done since a child. i am willing to bet that this has had a significant impact on the development of my wrist bones, their size and shape. Are there not similar considerations ideosynchratic to each specimin? This last point does not refer to pathological changes, rather to natural and perfectly healthy development.
I am aware that the population was far smaller, perhaps this is the reason that conclusions regarding conformity can be made, but i am wondering if archeological assumptions are way too simplistic?
How do archeologists take account of the above considerations when they often have only a few bones coming from one or two specimins? Its not really discussed in the popular science literature I have read.
Obviously science has encountered the above considerations, I would love to know more..
Zero