spunnery

I agree that I am always out of syllabus(I am not trying to put up a new theory on the subject-but to view it from a different angle-may be i am not good enough in expaining my thoughts or you are afraid to go off track).In the above case I will explain My view.A total downward force of 300N is acting downwards,but the ground is not allowing the block to move in the direction of force, by exerting an equal and opposite force.The real problem comes when you try to lift it .You have to apply a force more than 300N ,in the opposite direction to lift the block.which also means that block is still exerting a force of 300 N downwards.So what i mean is ,it is not always necesssary that a force will create a displacement(displacement can be nullified by an equal and opposite force).Nobody can deny that a downward force is always acting on the mentioned block,otherwise you could have lift it up with a 0.00001 N force. Sorry ,I was not able to get your personel ID.Otherwise i would not have put this subject running on again in this forumn ,to make other people getting Bored.

Please let me know ,if my calculations are wrong? or may be my assumption about earth movement is wrong?.How somebody can beleive in a postulate which have no reasoning?.

Go through it when you have time ,please.I need some valuable feed back from experts like you. it is not a hypothesis. it is only some basic doubts.Same result means every time,everywhere it showed a null result and i am not questioning that result.And i am 100% sure about the non existence of either,because of the result.

Let me start without introduction.(Please see attachment for the figures).Let us first go through the first postulate of special relativity. This states that,”Speed of light is same for all observer’s, no matter what their relative speeds are”. It is little bit difficult to disprove this, because of the high speed of light. Let us try for any clue in any experiments that have been already performed. Let us go little deep in to the basic principle of the very same experiment, Michel son & Morley experiment, to find out the presence of Either. Please keep in mind we are analyzing only a part of the basic principle of experiment, and only considering the area of our interest. Since I am putting this thread in a science forum, I am not explaining the experiment in detail. The basic principle of experiment is that the ray which is split into two mutually perpendicular rays will hit the mirrors kept equidistant from the splitter and come back to merge (only 50%) at splitter without any time delay. i.e., both the rays are taking equal time to travel equal distance. This experiment clearly proved that there is no either present; otherwise a delay will be shown in the ray, which is traveling against either or will be faster if along with the either. What we have in this experiment to disprove special relativity?. We are concerned about the path and time of rays from splitter to mirror and back in the normal direction of the ray. Let us examine the case from inside an inertial frame, without considering the movement of earth (see figure) To obtain more accuracy and to avoid long figure after decimals, let us consider the length L =100,000 km.(I know it is impossible-for convenience only).So the total length traveled by the ray(we are interested in the normal -i.e. forward direction ray only), will be 2 x L = 200,000 km. The time taken by light ray to travel this distance will be T1 = 200,000/299,793(vel of light) = 0.66712698428 seconds Now let us see this from an external reference frame, with the movement of earth taken into consideration. Here we are considering the straight-line movement of earth. Since sun is traveling at a speed of 217 km/sec. earth is also traveling at this speed to be in its orbit. Ignore the rotational movement and revolutionary movement of earth, since it will hardly make a curvature in the path for a small time fraction of 0.66712698428 seconds. see figure Give a considerable movement for earth ,Since the velocity of light is too much compared to that of earth .Say we are including the movement of our galaxy ,and consider it as 2170 km /sec(who knows may be more).The forward ray started from splitter will meet the mirror at a distance d1 as shown in figure at a time T2. Distance d1 = 299,793 x T2 Also d1 =L + 217 x T2 = 100,000 + 2170 x T2 So 299793 x T2 = 100,000 + 2170 x T2 ; solving equation, T2 = 0.33599553797. So d1 = 0.33599553797 x 299793 = 100,729.110314 km remaining time T3 = T1 – T2 = 0.33113144631 If light travel at a velocity of 299793 ,the distance traveled in time T3 will be 0.33113144631 x 299793 = 99,270.8896836 Distance to be traveled ,from sketch = d1 – 2170 x T1 = 100,729.110314 – 2170 x 0.66712698428 = 99281.444759 you’ll find a difference of 10.4 km to get more precise, make the value of movement of earth as 10,000 km /sec So 299793 x T2 =100,000 + 10,000 x T2; T2 = 0.34507389757 So d1 = 0.34507389757 x 299793 = 103,450.738 km remaining time = T3 = T1 –T2 = 0.32205308671 Distance light ray will travel in this time will be 0.32205308671 x 299793 = 96,549.261 km Distance to be traveled as per sketch. = d1 – 10,000 x t1 = 103450.738 – 6671.26984 =96779.468 km This discrepancy can be avoided if we give a relative velocity to light with respect to the frame of reference. This can be seen more evident if you go for the calculation of the perpendicular ray. Shall I say the first postulate of a theory for century is flawed? I am not sure about this . I await a good response ,especially from senior members like Swansont,farsight,insane_alien, Bignose etc .want to hear something hits the logic and assumptions.

consider body is resting on ground

Case 1 you are walking in a circle around me. You are always facing north.when you are at south you turn your head in right angle towards left to face north.walk on facing to north. when you are at north,your head will be turned 180 degree,ie, with respect to your body your head will be turned to right. Consider you body as axis and head as moon. So in this case moon is rotating and all side of the moon are visible from earth. Case 2 Again you are walking in a circle around me.At south you turn your head towards left to face me.you keep on walking around the circle without rotating your head.you will find you will be always facing me. Sorry ,if you people are fed up with my argument.even i am getting upset on myself.

Let us get out of the confusion of static friction and all.B'cause it is propotionate to applied force. Instead Of pushing,we will lift the stone. Say ,we have to lift up a stone, which is exerting a downward force of 200 N(due to gravity) . I am only applying a force of 100 N to lift it. So the stone will remain where it is. Now you will say the net force acting on the stone is zero. What i have to say is that,the net force acting on the stone is 100N downwards.

sorry I appologise

If Net force is zero,in both case. case1. You are not pushing. case2. You are pushing the stone. Then the force to be exerted by a third person in both cases (imagine he is herculese-Strong),to move the stone would have been same.Isn't it? So your effort in case 2 is not going to help him?

Static frictional force is there! but where is acceleration due to that force?if no acceleration ,no force isn't it?So please try to understand.There is forces acting on a body at rest or at uniform motion. What we call force is actually ,the extra amount of force required to create an acceleration.

I still hope you are a single person(please don't use plural-and don't think always the rest of world is supporting you).Let me discuss with you some fundamentals. Force = mass x acceleration . Does it means if there is no acceleration means no force?

It is an example.At any point of time until it hit,both the forces are perpendicular to each other.change in direction & speed is the result of two forces.

thats a fine answer.i am flattened .appreciate your humour sense.But iam not going to close the chapter

Many fundamental thinking have been changed by human being from the very begining of their evolution.Once they thought earth was flat. and so on.... So please read the whole thing carefully ,thoroughly and understand it(if you can) and reply.And please Talk for yourself,not for others

The force has gone into the car? Admit ,force is still acting on the car and keeps on mooving the car untill another force acts on it.

No confusion, earth is spinning at a different rate.that is why moon appears travelling across the sky.Please admit something Am i correct or not?

what is the meaning of not really good case?.you are not sure? And please I am not looking for an example for change in direction due to the action of two forces.

But in the case of moon the point is not disapearing(always you see the same face of moon -except libberations),which means there is no motor fixed at the end of the stick.

Tell me please if tennis ball with stick is analogy to moons motion around earth?

Sorry, If you feel that i am still sticking on to something i understood. If you are not fed up,please can you explain motion (can be a sketch or explanation) of a body which is revolving without rotating.

Sorry,the problem for me to understand this is because I am not a thirteen year old kid. Could you please explain me how in kinematics,the speed of body will not change if the force is acting perpendicular to the motion.Imagine Somebody is riding a bike at a speed of 10 km /sec. A huge truck at a speed of 100 km/sec come perpendicular to the bike and hit it.shall i beleive that only the direction of the bike will be changed? not the magnitude? what if the bike hit perpendicular to the truck?

It is not only a matter of perspective.You clearly states that the hammer is revolving(not rotating).that is what I am trying to say.

The day and night of moon is not caused by the rotation of moon on its own axis,but because it is moving in a circular path(not around sun) ,which can be called epicycle (???).This explanation is not enough to proove(say-it doesn't help to visualise ) the rotation of moon.

I appologise for my bad habits(to explain something not precisely) So i will start from zero again. The term force and it's defenition(formula also)s has to be redifined. The term momentum and its defenition(formula also) has to be redifined. A moving body have a force acting on it and it is equal to mass of body multiplied by velocity of the body.( earlier momentum) To change the magnitude or direction of this force in a given time't',you have to apply an say an EXTRA force /time to achieve the required result. Wait ! I will explain it more precisely. Consider a body of mass 'M' at a certain height above earth(not too far). The body was dropped from there.The gravity as per our new defenition will is acting on the body as a downward pulling force = M x 9.8 kg.m/sec. (Mass is multiplied because gravity is irrespective of mass-Also see denominator is only second instead of second square). So,because of the gravity pull (ignore other forces) after 1 second the body will be at 9.8 meter below the drop point,and as per our new defenition of force, a force of M x 9.8 meter /sec is acting on it(because of displacement). Now at that moment ,gravity is pulling the body again at a force 9.8meter/sec. So the total force vector will be M x 2 x 9.8 meter/sec.Now the total velocity at the end of 2 second will be 19.6meter/sec.This means the body is accelerating and this is because of the addition of existing force in the first second and the pull exerted by gravity in the second second. I hope, now my perspective is clear(correct or not is the second question)?

sorry i am not concerned about the words or terms, i am interested in the logic behind my explanation