Aakash Pandita

yes. i got it.

Is it that protons tend to join other H2O molecules rather than forming H402+?

Is it related to reactivity?

it is pulling wagons2,3,4,5

what is the meaning of uniform composition? I know that a solution or a mixture has uniform composition if all sections of it as the same properties..... a solution like pure water can be called of uniform composition because it is made up of h2o molecules throughout and that is what we find when we keep on dividing it. but a mixture like salt and water has particles of nacl in between particles of h2o. so why do we call it as of uniform composition?(as these nacl particles may be less and present between some h2o particles and present not in some others)

f=ma so what mass should we take to multiply with acceleration...................mass of engine+mass of wagon1..........or.............mass of wagon2+3+4+5

wagon 1 is joined to the engine .....and we are asked the force which it exerts on wagon 2 which is connected to wagon 3,4,5. will the force exerted by the wagon 1= mass of engine+mass of wagon 1 x a?

I am just not able to understand that when we want to find the force exerted by wagon1 on wagon2..........what mass should we multiply with the acceleration and why?

what is the meaning of uniform composition? I know that a solution or a mixture has uniform composition if all sections of it as the same properties..... a solution like pure water can be called of uniform composition because it is made up of h2o molecules throughout and that is what we find when we keep on dividing it. but a mixture like salt and water has particles of nacl in between particles of h2o. so why do we call it as of uniform composition?(as these nacl particles may be less and present between some h2o particles and present not in some others)

There is something that I not able to understand about force. I would like to tell it to you with an example. There is a train consisting of 1 engine of 8000kg and 5 wagons of 2000 kg each The acceleration of the train is 2 m/s2 How would you tell what force is exerted by wagon 1 on wagon 2 and why?

i got it. thank you. and i moved the decimal by fault.

Hello. Please tell me how to round off repeating numbers after decimal. For example, how to round off 0.6666666666...... would it be 6.5 or 6.7? and why?

How much energy is produced when an average human being paddles a bicycle normally? plz help me!

1. Can rotation of pedals by an averageperson produce enough energy to rotate a fan of diameter of 1 m at such a speedthat it can help to accelerate an air vehicle having a weigh of about 100 Kg? Please help me....and provide me the answer of this question as much as you can.

We cannot pass beyond body to a further kind, as we passed from length to surface, and from surface to body. For if we could, it would cease to be true that body is complete magnitude. We could pass beyond it only in virtue of a defect in it and that which is complete cannot be defective, since it extends in every direction. Now bodies which are classed as parts of the whole are each complete according to our formula, since each possesses every dimension. But each is determined relatively to that part which is next to it by contact, for which reason each of them is in a sense many bodies. But the whole of which they are parts must necessarily be complete, and must, as the term indicates, extend in every direction and not just in some. These are the words by Aristotle...in his book On the Heavens...but i could not understand this para.... It would be gr8 if any1 could help me out.... Thanks in advance!!

A magnitude if divisible one way is a line, if two ways a surface, and if three a body. Beyond these there is no other magnitude, because the three dimensions are all that there are, and that which is divisible in three directions is divisible in all. One thing, however, is clear. We cannot pass beyond body to a further kind, as we passed from length to surface, and from surface to body. For if we could, it would cease to be true that body is complete magnitude. We could pass beyond it only in virtue of a defect in it and that which is complete cannot be defective, since it extends in every direction. -by Aristotle(translated by J.L Stocks) Is he wrong????or his words co-relate with the modern science in some way or the other???

Hello! I am a minor.I did not read all that which is written above.I just wanted to clarify my doubts.I had read that the speed of light is not relative to the observer .I would like to clarify this by stating an example.If a truck is travelling towards me at 10m /sec. and I am running towards it at 1m/sec,I would feel that the truck is running towards me at 9m/sec.But according to the first postulate of relativity,the speed of light is the same for all freely moving observers.Whether I am running towards the light source or running away from it, the speed of light would be the same for me...But I did not understand that how it could be,how the speed of light is different from the truck?