Hi, I recently joined www.scienceforums.net and I have a question that may sound stupid:
The first covariant derivative of the metric tensor is equal to zero. Fine. But does anyone know if the covariant derivative of THAT is equal to zero? Part of me says yes because the first covariant derivative is zero but part of me says maybe not because it's an entirely different operator acting on the metric tensor. I'm not an expert on tensors, just learning them for enjoyment, so any help will be greatly appreciated!
