Powell

Both do act as pigments in plants, but no, Betalains are not classed as flavonoids. Most red colouration in plants is due to carotenoids and flavonoids. However Betalains have a much more limited distribution. Betalains are restricted exclusively to plants of the order Caryophyllales (cacti, carnations, amaranths etc.)

The assortment of chromosomes that the zygote recieves from the two gametes is primarily generated in three main ways. The first is chromosomal crossovers, during prophase I in meiosis, when homologous chromosomes are paired together, there are points along the chromosomes that make contact with the other pair. This point of contact is deemed the chiasmata, and can allow the exchange of genetic information between chromosomes, giving a new combination of alleles on each chromosome Good Diagram: http://www.emc.maricopa.edu/faculty/farabee/BIOBK/Crossover.gif The second is Indepenadant Assortment which occurs in Metaphase I when the chromosomes are lined up along the equator of the cell. As there is a 50:50 chance of which way round a pair of homologous chromosomes will be on this equator, when the cell divides there will be a 2^n (n being haploid number of chromosomes) possible combinations of paternally dirived and maternally derived chromsomes in the daughter cell. The final factor that causes variation is the random fusion between gametes, i.e. which gametes are involved in fertilisation, as genetically they will all be different.

I've found these pretty good: Glycolysis steps "Goodness Gracious, Father Franklin Did Go By Picking Pumpkins (to) Prepare Pies": Glucose Glucose-6-P Fructose-6-P Fructose-1,6-diP Dihydroxyacetone-P Glyceraldehyde-P 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate 3-Phosphoglycerate 2-Phosphoglycerate (to) Phosphoenolpyruvate [PEP] Pyruvate · 'Did', 'By' and 'Pies' tell you the first part of those three: di-, bi-, and py-. · 'PrEPare' tells location of PEP in the process. Glycolysis enzymes "High Profile People Act Too Glamorous, Picture Posing Every Place": Hexokinase Phosphoglucose isomerase Phosphofructokinase (PFK) Aldase A Triose phosphate isomerase Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase Phosphoglycerate mutase Enolase Pyruvate kinase

If we have 46 chromosomes and other primates have 48 chromosomes then there must have been a point during our evolutionary path that two chromosomes fused together to form one chromosome (from what i've read it is apparently chromosome 2). If this is true then the fusion of these 2 chromosomes must have been a random mutation according to darwinian evolution. However if this new mutant hominid had any offspring with any of the other hominids around it that still had the 'normal' chromosome number then it's children would be infertile (as in the cases of mules were the horse has 64 chromosomes and the donkey has 62 chromosomes giving an offspring of 63 chromosomes that does not pair properly and cannot divide) So if the children where infertile then there is no way this mutation would suceed. The only way this could happen is if a large number of the hominidsall mutated within the same generation and were all in the same geological area and decided to mate with each other. The path of human evolution was very rapid in evolutionary terms and I think the odds of this random mutation happening lots of times within the space of about 20 years very slim indeed. So my Questions are: 1. How do to chromosomes fuse together? 2. What is the evolutionary advantage of having less chromosomes 3. how did any offspring of the new mutant hominid born without being infertile.