Nope. Basically, this is the definition:
A function [math]f(x):\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}[/math] is sequentially continuous at a point c if and only if for any sequence [math](x_n) \to c, f(x_n) \to f©[/math] for some [math]x\in\mathbb{R}[/math]. A consequence of this is that every continuous function is sequentially continuous and vice versa.
So for f(x) = x, take some sequence [math]a_n \to c[/math]. Then [math]f(a_n) = a_n[/math], so [math]\lim_{n\to\infty} f(a_n) = \lim_{n\to\infty}a_n = c = f©[/math] as required. This effectively proves that f(x) is continous for all of the reals - similar proof for f(x) = -x.