From a formal point of view, yes, what PeterJ is saying is nonsense; it literally makes no sense. But we are human beings, not robots and from a purely intuitive point of view, which I believe is clearly implied in all of PeterJ's posts, I don't think he is very far off; it sounds very much like what is being said here, and while I have nothing to compare the information there with, I'd be very surprised to find out it was complete nonsense.
So, DrRocket, from a intuitive, no-PhD-in-math point of view, is it correct? I would like to know myself; so far, I have looked at the Riemann hypothesis in the manner described in the aforementioned article. I would very much like to be alerted to the fact that it's all rubbish.