Uhm... I may be wrong here, but unless there's a chiasma - probably none? Since it's recessive, won't it need both x-chromosomes to have the hemophilia-A allele? And since the fathers's x-chromosome only carries the hemophilia-B allele (which is also recessive) there won't be a homozygote hemophilia-a or -b gene and therefore no hemophilia.
That's just my assumption, though. As already said, I may be wrong.
If this is a theoretical thought, I should mention that it's already pretty unlikely for a woman to be hemophilic to begin with. Both forms are x-linked and recessive, so if a woman is affected both of her sex-chromosomes have to carry the gene.