After severa days of thinking, I found two possible explanations.
The first statement "PE of gas>PE of liquid>PE of solid" is right,
but the second statement"In a gas, where the intermolecular forces are weak, the internal energy is entirely molecular KE." is ambiguous
first explanation:
the statement should be rewrote as "In a ideal gas, where the intermolecular forces are weak(or doesn't exist), the internal energy is entirely molecular KE."
second explanation:
the statement should be rewrote as "In a gas, where the intermolecular forces are weak, the change of internal energy is entirely change of molecular KE."
because the change of volume of gas doesn't involve change of state and the intermolecular forces are weak means insignificant work done on PE
I guess the second explanation is the right one.