Hey guys,
I was (actually, I still am) wondering why neuronal activation that is induced by administration of leptin is commonly detected by pSTAT3 immunoreactivity and not by e.g. cFos. Leptin binding to its receptor activates STAT3, I know. That means that pSTAT3 IR is a marker for the activation of the leptin receptor. Why not looking directly on the actual activation of the neuron, by monitoring the translation of the immediate early gene cFos? CFos is also a commonly used marker but, as opposed to pSTAT, it's a more direct evidence for the activation of the neuron, isn't it?
What do I miss here?
Any help is greatly appreciated.
stupid.me