Bart
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Everything posted by Bart
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Does the passage of time in the universe is uniform? A brief discussion paper on this subject is available on the link: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/26262175/TimeInUniverse.pdf Do the arguments presented in this article can be right?
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Thank you for your response. Yes, it is a serious problem for the theory of relativity. Let's stop hiding our heads in the sand. Brief description of this case is available at the link: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/26262175/GravitationalTimeDilation.pdf
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I do not understand your position. The ratio of rotation period of the pulsar P2 to the pulsar P1 is always constant, and on any object in space is 100 000. We have taken the rotation period of the pulsar P1 as our universal time unit UTU, which makes that on every object in the universe, the rotation period of the pulsar P2 will always be measured as 100 000 UTU. Thus, time in the UTU units flows at the same rate on all objects in the space. Where do you see here, therefore, any time dilation measured in the UTU units?
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DH, does this mean that the ratio of the flashes period of the pulsar P2 to the period of pulsar P1 , which is invariable and is always equal to 100 000 (in this example), according to you is changing? How do you want to explain that to you here on Earth, suddenly one of the pulsar decreased or increased its rotation compared to the other one? Are you a magician?
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No response? So it just means, that all agree with the fact that the period of the flashes of pulsar P2, if measured on the Earth, will also amount to 100 000 UTU, which is the same as measured on any other object in the universe, regardless of its mass. Thus, this example provides confirmation that the time flows everywhere at the same rate, independent from the local clocks, which may be late or fast due to various reasons. And also, this example confirms that the interpretation of time dilation according to the theory of relativity is evidently erroneous. So it's probably time to radically revise our current understanding and interpretation of the relativity theory as a whole. Many thanks to All for your comments. Bart
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Swansont wrote: Any competent physics can. Thus, consider the following example: In the distant space, we have chosen two pulsars for measurement of time, pulsar P1 and pulsar P2, both with the very stable generation of signals (flashes). Pulsar P1 generates flashes of very high frequency, and the pulsar P2 of very slow frequency. Assume the period of flashes of the pulsar P1 as the Universal Time Unit (UTU). Our measuring robot placed on some very massive object in space, which mass is 100 times larger than our Sun, but of the same radius, has measured the period of flashes of the pulsar P2 as exactly equal to the 100 000 UTU (100 000 pulses of pulsar P1). Question: What will be the period of flashes of the pulsar P2 in UTU units, if measured on Earth ?
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So let's look at the relationship of the clocks in question from g: The period of the pendulum clock: T = 2pi (L / g) ^0.5 , (g = GM / R ^ 2) The period of the light clock: T = To / (1-gR / c ^ 2) ^ 0.5 Where: To - the period of the light clock ticking in the absence of gravity (g = 0) Why then, it is believed that when moving the clocks from the ground floor onto 50th floor, which results in a change to these clocks the value of g from g1 to g2, a compensation of this change is only required for the pendulum clock, and is not required for the light clock? Why it is claimed that light clocks always show the correct time on the site, and other types of clocks require revisions? Why it is believed that indications of the light clocks are invariant and that time is just variable and flows faster or slower depending on the g? Can anyone deny that the duration of any event anywhere in the universe, if measured by the same units of time (eg flashes of the selected pulsar) will always be the same for every observer in space, regardless of the mass of the object on which he is located? So I repeat my thesis here, that the time dilation should be understood as a divergence of indication of the clocks, because of the way they work, and not as the change of passage of time itself, which can not depend on the construction of one or other of the clock.
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Let's leave then the Earth's poles and equator and take another example: Light-clock and the pendulum clock, are placed on the ground floor of a tower, and have identical time indication with the third reference clock on this floor. After moving light-clock and pendulum clock to the 50 floor of the tower, these clocks will have different indications of time. The light-clock will be fast, and the pendulum clock will be late relative to the reference clock left on the ground floor. We see then that this or that time dilation is associated with the construction of the clocks, not with time itself. As for the "No response !", it was just kind of thought shortcut, that the answer to the question raised is not so obvious. Sorry about that, but English is not my home language. Many thanks for your comments, but there are no convincing arguments in your opinion that the claim: "the measurement of time must always be referred to the some accepted reference clock, and must be counted in the same units for all clocks" - is invalid. So, I still stand by my conclusion.
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1.The aging of the body has no connection with the tick rate of any remote or local clocks. It is a biological process which runs according to the rate of its chemical process , which in turn depend on the physical environment in which this body resides. Examples: - The body badly nourished and hard-working is aging faster than the body well fed and rested. - The body in hibernation, practically not age at all. Time is stopped for it. - The same chemical reactions proceed more slowly at low temperatures and faster at higher temperatures. 2.Relativistic gravitational time dilation is just a technological feature of the light clocks, which does not apply to passage of time itself. According to the GR theory, time indicated by such clocks at the poles of Earth, runs slower than at the equator, due to the difference of gravity. But whereas the other clocks, pendulum clocks, using just gravity, indicate that the time run faster at the poles than at the equator. Thus, the indication of which of these clocks show the correct passage of time on the Earth? No response ! The conclusion is that the measurement of time must always be referred to some accepted reference clock, and must be counted in the same units for all clocks. Such a reference clock in space could be the selected pulsar, and its period of flashes (eg 1 second) as the standard unit of time for all clocks. 3. The real passage of time in space, thus not dependent on the local clocks. At the fixed time unit, the Earth's rotation period of 24 hours and the Earth's orbital period around the Sun amounting to 365 * 24 hours, will be the same for every observer in space, regardless of the mass of the object on which he is located.
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This case has no relation with ideal clocks that do not exist, but relates to the real clocks that work, let's say, in the vast space web of time, working in master-slave mode, in which the pulsar is the master clock and the slave are the clocks on all other objects in space. Such a network is similar to the typical solution that has been used and still is, in a distributed clock networks in offices and factories. So the theory of relativity has nothing to do here and any time dilation for the clocks does not occur here at all.
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I think we should separate the concept of time dilation, from the possible dilation of clocks indications, which for the clocks not using the pulsar signal can be fast or slow,depending on the clock design. My understanding of this case was different. In this example, all clocks in space are clocked remotely using a standard time signal which is generated from the pulsar. Thus, all clocks in space will run exactly with the same rhythm of time, and one minute, one hour, etc on Earth has the same time length as on any other obiect in space. Thus, regardless of the construction and location of clocks in space, the passage of time indicated on each clock in space will always be the same, and there is no room for any time dilation.
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Thank you for responce. In my post the synchronization of the clocks should be understood remote timing of the clocks by 1 sec pulses from the pulsar.
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Assume that the adopted standard of time in our region of the universe is a selected pulsar with a rotation cycle of 1 second,and that the clocks on Earth and on all other space objects, including those with very big mass, are synchronized by the pulses of the pulsar. Thus, these clocks will always indicate the same time, everywhere in space, regardless of the mass of the object upon which they are located. This example, therefore, contradicts the truth of the gravitational time dilation. Am I right?
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A newer version of Sagitarius BR does not exist yet and I do not know when it might appear.
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Do not be clear enough, the following definition of time? Time is a quantity indicating the amount of the unit reference events, that occur in the period between two other events under consideration.
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Reliable physical explanation for the effects of dark matter is presented in the following link: link removed
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From a scientific point of view, the absolute vacuum, is a term of more philosophical than physical sense, as much as the terms of heaven or hell. If by an absolute vacuum we understand, in the physical sense, any geometric space in which there is no matter, there is no energy, and any physical forces, then such a thing does not exist anywhere in the entire universe. Everywhere in the universe there is some matter (mean density of matter in the universe is 9.3 E-27 kg/m3), is a radiation, is a gravitational force, is a electrostatic or magnetic field. Thus, considering the physical characteristics of an absolute vacuum, has rather little sense.
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Thank you DH, many thanks to All for interesting discussion and the search for truth in this intricate and perhaps still open topic. "Man involved in science will never understand why he should believe in certain opinions simply because they are in a book. [...] Also he never deems its own results for the ultimate truth". A. Einstein Reality does not always agree even with the most sound mathematics. If you put your one leg in boiling water (100 °C) and the other in a very cold ice (eg-50 ° C), then you should feel great, because the sound math shows that you are in the average temperature of 25 °C.
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Why incorrect? If I, being in a flying rocket, have on my clock an indication eg. 12.00 and at the same time, you on the Earth have also on your clock an indication 12.00, and after an hour I have an indication 13.00 and you also have an indication 13.00, etc. Thus, in my frame in a rocket and in your frame on the Earth, time passes at an identical rate. Does not it?
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Thanks. It means that the local time indications in the rocket will be exacly the same as on the Earth. Thus it denies the existence of time dilation, and proves constancy of the time in the universe ?
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Sorry but I did not use any font/size game. May be in my notebook was something wrong defaulted. My question was about some other matter. It not concerned on how the observers see each other clocks on Earth and in the rocket, but on whether the clock in the rocket, due to the fact that the speed of light in its glass is the same as on Earth, is ticking at the same local frequency in the rocket as the ticking of clocks on the Earth? My understanding is that the clocks in the rocket must have identical frequency (measured locally), as the frequency measured localy for the clocks on the Earth. It means that the local time idications in the rocket and the Earth will be the same
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Thank you DH. So in that case, the light-clocks made of glass that were used in the experiment presented earlier in this forum on the link: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/26262175/TimeDilation.pdf should always indicate the same time as the clocks on the Earth. Is my understanding correct?
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Thanks Swansont and DH for your explanations. So, does it mean that regardless of whether the rocket is standing on the Earth or already is flying in space, the speed of light in the glass rods ( parallel to the rocket or perpendicular to the rocket), which will be observed by the researcher in the rocket, will always show no difference and remains the same as on Earth?
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The answer from IM: " The speed of light in a glass rod will show no difference, whether the rod is parallel to the Earth or perpendicular to the Earth. This result does not violate special relativity. Why? Because it is being performed in a single frame of reference. The source of the light, the glassrod, and the device which measures the speed of that light are all on the Earth at rest with respect to each other -- i.e. in a single frame of reference. The motion of the Earth has no effect because the entire experiment and the Earth are moving together. " So my question is very clear: If the above explanation is OK, whether it is also true the following statement: The speed of light in a glass rod will show no difference, whether the rod is parallel to the rocket or perpendicular to the rocket, because it is being performed in a single frame of reference. The researcher, the source of the light, the glass rod, and the device which measures the speed of that light are all on the rocket at rest with respect to each other -- i.e. in a single frame of reference. The motion of the rocket has no effect because the entire experiment and the rocket are moving together. " DH, if this question is still unclear to you, then I would think that you play with me in the "cat and mouse", and you do not want to explain anything.