ellipsis

That's right. Sodium is MUCH more reactive and lithium. You get LiOH after that.

Hmm... I think the left half is easier to prove. I think you can just move "-2xyz" over and change it into a good form. But I'm a bit stuck on the right half of the inequality. I was thinking of using ab <= 2(ab)^(1/2)? The condition for that is a=b. Applying this to the inequality means that x=y=z.... This is not a good method at all.... anyone with better ideas?

How come interference produces equal intensity pattern while diffraction produces unequal intensities? I read something about "intensity depend upon the total displacement", but I'm still confused... thanks!

Wow... very interesting insights. Thank you!

I just had this random thought... Since electric field can be blocked by a metal sphere in electrostatic equilibrium (when there is a charge outside the sphere and the sphere reaches equilibrium, it becomes an object of equal potential, so electric field lines can't penetrate the sphere), is it possible to block gravitational field?

To Atheist: That's what I was wondering, since, while I did not learn the more sophisticated version, I learned that the law cannot be applied to objects separated by a distance smaller than their sizes. So I guess I can't really "plug in numbers" and calculate the acceleration! Thank you all!

Just a quick question as to WHEN this law can apply to objects... Is it applicable when two objects are REALLY close to each other? I saw this question asking what acceleration a person experiences when he is inside the earth. Is it even possible to calculate the acceleration?

I see... Thank you all for replying!

SORRY! I didn't explain it... I can't quite remember it, but it says that a neutron, in some process, emits a neutrino and an anti-neutrino. If neutrino is an antiparticle of itself, then when two neutrons emit two pairs, one neutrino will immediately annihilate one neutrino, thus leaving us with two neutrinos. So what are the current theories explaining why there is more matter than anti-matter?

Well, I found out about the amplitude of a wave here: http://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/gbssci/phys/Class/waves/u10l2c.html Since amplitude also shows intensity, I want to know if intensity is related to energy. I didn't know there are that many "intensities"... Klaynos, what do you mean by "measure of the energy of a light beam"?

One possible theory that explains the dominance of matter over antimatter is that neutrino is an anti-particle of itself, so that two neutrinos will annihilate, while the other two survive. How COULD that be possible? Won't the other two also annihiate? I'm so confused...

I read something about the amplitude of the wave. It said that the amplitude of a wave shows how much energy the wave has, which in turn suggests that intensity is related to energy. But isn't the energy of light related to the frequency?

This may seem like a very basic question, but... Since light exhibits two properties, can light intensity be thought of as the amplitude when it's a wave, and the number of particles present in a certain area when it's a particle? Thanks!!!