Hi
I am trying to understand twin studies and really coming up against a brick-wall, probably because of my lack of maths knowledge.
In particular I am trying to understand how making the "random mating assumption" when it should not be made (i.e. for the trait being studied random mating does not hold) could effect a study.
For example in an imaginary study:
In the mz set lets say there is a concordance factor of 80%. In the dz set 40%. The random mating assumption has been made.
However; in fact for this trait the random mating assumption should not have been made, it turns out, and in fact the dz group shared 75% of their genes not 50%. (This is an artificial example probably exaggerated).
I *think* that that means the genetic effect in this case would have been exaggerated.
But I am struggling to understand this and to show it mathematically.
Am I right and can anyone explain it to me?
Many thanks
--Justin Wyllie