maxlongo

that was exactly the point i was trying to make, although you put it in a much more detailed way our ability to know is as vast as our ability to understand. and we can't understant what we can't perceive, because for us it doesn't exist. it would be like to explain the difference between green and red to a blind. the universe is finite only because finite is the power of our intellect.

i have my most profound doubts

I realised that i should have probably specified that i was using the word "mechanism" both in the classical and the quantistic way. Nowadays, we use atomic clock, but do we know enough about gravity to be 100% sure that it doesn’t have any effect at atomic and/or subatomic level? Especially, if we consider the acceptance by many scientist of the existence of the graviton. Most definitively. Depends if it is time to be cause, affecting things without sense, or simply a “perception” of the event happening. If a car crashes into a wall would you say that time cause the damage? If nothing is created, nor destroyed but only transformed every change can be considered as part of a flow with no end nor beginning. Nor birth or death. similarly nor light or sound exist on their own. they are vibrations that we "record" with our senses and that makes them real for us. but we can't put light or sound in a box.

but how our microverse, region-verse, visiverse interact with the rest of the Universe? is it like a drop of oil in a glass of water which remains completely isolated from the rest or like a drop of ink that "dissolves" into the bigger "verse"? because in the first case "there is something outside". Something we can't even remotely understand and therefore from our perspective it would be "nothing". it would be like a flat 2d being trying to grasp, and therefore measure and give a name to the 3rd dimension we call height. in the second case there would be nothing, anyway.

thanks for the answer Janus, very helpfull although it open the door to another tricky question. a question that probably is more philosophical and speculative that scientific. i getting a bit deeper into the matter and i noticed that many of the experiments, if not almost all of them, to confirm the time dilation predicted by the theory of relativity use the Doppler effect. An effect which we could "feel" with our senses, hearing and sight, before it was scientifically "discovered" and explained. so now i am wondering. What if time rather than being the 4th dimension as we consider it now, it is actually a 6th sense. (not in the "classical" o Shamalayan way). which actually would cut the "possibility" of travelling in time, since it is not a dimension. i mean with our five senses we take notice of changes. in radiation with the eyes, in air pressure with the hears, in surface texture with the skin, ecc.ecc. i just throw it as an idea if anyone is interested in developing it, but as i said i know is more philosophical than scientific. i should first demontstrate that we have an organ that register the change in "state" of the universe around us. a change that we call time. but i have no intention in studying biology. thanks again

Hi, I have actually just signed because it is a while I have a question in my mind I can’t find an answer on the net and I hope that some of you could help me out. I start from this quote off another topic by a member of the forum, quote that I find quite interesting for the question I have in mind… In this case it is clear that distance does not affect the size of the two girls but only their perception of each other. And if the analogy is correct as I think it is that it comes the question. It is accepted that gravity affect time. But has it been demonstrate without any doubts that what it is affected is not actually our perception of it? A while ago in a program about the research into the graviton and quantistic gravity. They shown, as proof of the effect of gravity on the time, the painstaking job of some military men to keep the clocks on the GPS satellites in line with those on Earth. But how can we esclude that gravity does not affect time but rather the mechanisms we used to measure its flowing? PS: i apology if i posted in the wrong place, or in the wrong way or other similia, and if any of you have problem with my english (not my mother tongue, nor i am really into physics. just curious.)