Michael Lee

It's nonsense, sorry.

I should have known better to talk about religion with scientists. They believe they have all the answers to all of humanities' problems. How lame and vain are they!

Okay, ACG52, is that the best you can do? Resort to insults of my appearances. Shame on you!

Okay, I'm out of here - I'm obviously out of place.

Asking "is God real?" is a personal philosophical question and not a scientific one. However, myths often contain some truth. Noah, is said to have been a "real" man. The Ark was said to be a real ship. The Tower of Babel was said to have been a real building. There is nothing irrational about those kinds of expressions. But I do grant, I'm unable to believe everything in the Bible or other doctrines of theistic belief.

It depends on what one means by "real". David Hume would perhaps argue, according to "bundle theory", we experience the world through our senses and reality consists of bundles of features. We feel attributes of things, but not the thing by itself. He argued that "something" devoid of attributes doesn't exist or can even be conceived of. For example, suppose we take some honey, we can describe it as being sweet, sticky, amber in colour, doesn't go bad, tastes bitter to someone with jaundice, is odorless, etc., but these are features of honey as it interacts with ones senses and are not of honey itself; strip the honey of these features and there is nothing left. In other words, is anyone here able to think of something that exists that does not have positive attributes? For energy, none of my senses are able to detect it directly. What are the features of energy? That which is capable of doing work? Does it "exist" in a substance? Are these scientific questions or philosophical ones?

I suffer from Bipolar I and it's not much fun. I once had a serious delusion that Queen Elizabeth was trying to communicate special messages to me in the news. I booked a last minute flight to London and discovered I'm wrong and got arrested trying. I think it's funny now but it wasn't when I was there - all I had for money was my credit card. Great God that was horrible experience.

Perhaps it will help if we derive the formula without using calculus. This works only with uniform acceleration. Fd = KE F = ma so, mad = KE Draw a graph with time on the x axis and velocity on the y axis, then plot a line at the origin with a slope equal to the acceleration of the body. This tells you how fast the body is moving at a given moment of time. Now d is equal to the area under the line for a given interval of time and it's equal to vt/2. So, KE = ma(vt/2) KE = m ta v/2 ta = v KE = 1/2 m v2