Iwonderaboutthings

Axil tilts, Equator And Celestial Equator all sounds like "Cartesian Coordinates" used in Special Relativity, or Relativity in general but relative to what??? Earth has 2 seasons not 1. Why 1 year and not 2? Or alteast 1 1/2. On another note, when I have a theory I will let the science community know about this as I know they are always quite excited about new discoveries. On another note: Please let the moderators do the warnings. Now, you speak of sunlight and weather patterns, position of earth, axil tilt, celestial equator and etc. This I already know. But that does not explain fresh water glaciers, the auroras, northern lights the moon's tug on the oceans, the list goes on and on, not to mention the north pole and south pole having 0 gravity " I've read." For example "Uranus" by meteorologist, is used to predict strong storm weather patterns here on planet earth. Why So? I assumed the "sunlight" was what caused precession on this planet and hence " seasons" you speak of, but it appears there are other planets that do effect earth's "weather pattern" not " time pattern. I think this is what I should have stated. But maybe weather and sunlight " time" are two separate "things" still not understood as with particle waves and electro magnetism. What I am seeing is this world has two types of systems 1/2 apart = winter solstice and summer solstice. This 1/2 deal shows up alot especially with QM. December Winter marks 12 months = 1 year June Summer = 6 months = 1/2 year Technically Spring and Autumn have = amounts of sunlight so I guess theses spots are void of time?? The sun and the speed of light have some orders over time and we use time to calculate many things of which consequently remain everywhere as per QM and other respected areas of science. But if that were the case then we should be seeing sunlight all the time with a constant weather pattern, but we don't. What truly gets me however, is why earth has an = amount of +- electrons making earth a great semiconductor and reference point in space? Not sure about this but I have read over and over again from electrical engineering books and study. Don't worry, it does not make sense to me either but i try... Thanks

"Simultaneous" seasons on earth rather they be winter or summer always have been regarded as having some type of significance rather this be by religion and or astronomical observation via the North Pole Star Polaris marking new eras ie " circles and cycles" on this planet for decades. Depending on what " region" ie location you live on earth, the observation is physically evident as either being winter or summer respectfully speaking. To add As per recorded history a year equaling a full orbital path of earth's motion around the sun coupled with the "Winter Solstice Alignments" significantly proves that earth as a whole "system" in itself all share a single year ie calender year. For example: When in the northern region of earth 10 days after the winter solstice of December 21 arrives the new year as January 1'st 2013 " new year for example. But could this reasoning also hold true for Summer Solstice of June 21 for the southern region of earth both being spaced 1/2 apart as in 360/2 = 180 degrees? If yes then that would not be a valid completion of earth's full orbit around the sun. But I am not sure. Looking further into "cycles and orbital paths" tells us that their should be separate years that represent these two " occurrences on planet earth as suggested by the physical seasons. However earth does share 1 year as in our current year of 2013 from what I understand about it. Furthermore looking at gravity at the surface of earth as 9.8 / ms strongly suggest that gravity as well must also hold two types of " systems" within itself that are yet linked to " precession" similar to how earth shares simultaneous seasons otherwise gravity would be an invalid universal constant. One way of looking at this can be special relativity, however the speed of light is known to be "everywhere" so how then time and gravity have anything to do with simultaneously seasons on earth? They too must be everywhere as the speed of light???? Its Bazaar to me

I think you nailed this jut right! You see I believe there is a product " sum " value not considered in the double slit experiments of which causes a " pre " destined particle path that is the result of the product in question. Here is a good link on this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Momentum In classical mechanics, linear momentum or translational momentum (pl.momenta; SI unit kg m/s, or equivalently, N s) is the product of the mass and velocityof an object. And as mentioned above earlier, "Translations" are merely changes in Coordinate Systems that use imaginary mathematics " numbers." It seems that " numbers" sequences and etc have other "constituents" as does theparticle.

But in regards to " particle waves" and the uncertainty principle coupled with bases of 10. it seem that this would just loop back " or decay" back into the h constant?? .I am sorry but after this video on Double Slit and electrons knowing that they are being watched, I am starting to truly think that pi ratio, the " number" is involved some how. Waves are waves and they cancel out " they say" every-time. Video: Wave Function Collapse http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PKioZfRw2-Y This may be completely incorrect as this is rather a bizarre topic " for anyone." What I can't help to think is that the constructive and destructive interference pattern appears " warped" in mid air as if though it looks like a 3d UV TEXTURE MAP for a 3d basket ball for a video game. HERE IS A GREAT EXAMPLE: 3D UV MAP OF SPHERE: https://lh4.googleusercontent.com/-tMSIxeuLyQg/TYDgRaxOe-I/AAAAAAAAAFI/XlSQxnMUTMo/s640/2.jpg For example: h*c = 1.986424826708e-31 <-- Here traveling at relative speeds, this loops back in the exponent as 60 seconds of one cycle or minute per say again being digital here like h and or granular. 2*30= 60+1 ??? 1 being h and 2 a constant, not sure, but something like that. However, there is a big chunk of numbers still missing.. 3.14*1.986424826708e-31 = 6.23737395586312e-31<--- Pi ratio the number loops close to the h constant while still remaining in the exponent negative looping direction.. I don't know if this was even stated correctly. Are complex number systems " truly" used in QM??? If so their truly are two ratios being used, one for I believe the secant? and the tangent? Hope this helps.. Why do they need to be balanced??? I thought that was chemistry though or maybe they just work the same since these are orbitals we are talking about..The quarks explanation makes a lot of sense now thanks, I had heard of pions but was unsure of them. I had them confused for a while and I think I will always . WOW this can get extreme, but I am very much wanting to know and to learn all I can. Thanks for the reply appreciated

- pi ratio and + pi ratio?? Question please..Particle Confinement Under fundamental forces here: http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/forces/funfor.html#c1 It mentions how these are connected to the "confinement" particle in a box. It shows the "graphical symbol" - pi ratio " this is how it looks between strong forces" on the link above for QM. My question is how is it possible that pi " ratio" is 3d dimensional?????? Is this true? I thought pi ratio was a circumference... If this is truly coupled with The Uncertainty Principle, then "I am guessing here not debating" That pi must have an anti?? Also, how can pi ratio both be used as a circumference and then a "confinement box for strong nuclear forces of 3 dimensions to the atomic scale not connected to" spheroid shapes" having in mind that to these atomic scales " circles " are not round anymore, or something to that matter. I guess I am very confused on pi ratio now being dimensional but excited if it is! This is copied and pasted here from the same sight: Titled Particle Confinement http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/uncer.html#c1 Planck's constant, appearing in the uncertainty principle, determines the size of the confinement that can be produced by these forces To continue would this mean that the h constant is connected to - pi ratio then???? Thanks in advance, have a great week!

In a sense I am a "metaphysical thinker" highly into astrology and numerology BUT---> not for matters of people's charector , fortune telling and etc but for the premise and relation to " space time geometry" coupled with the premise of human thinking and the famous belief in the LA W OF ATTRACTION, good point there. But I also believe in free will. From the ancients to the current science I study all perspectives and highly respect them for a good reason The reason I believe in this is because of "human relations on the speed of light " time keeping systems" monetary systems, calenders, human age, the human spirit, love " men with men" women with woman" man and woman" and etc. I believe to understand the forces of nature " HENCE--->life being one of them" at times we need to "think" like the speed of light versus understanding it in human " dual" conscious and subconscious terms. Obviously translations " numbers" in quantum physics use spectral and other non physical natures " matrix blue prints" that "provide some multiple answers" but not all " again" psychical answers of definition for absolutes.. Honestly I don't believe in quantum mechanics at all due to how Max Plank found his constants in a kiln "as per the information" on classical physics, but also required in physical formula used today by physics. There is a bigger picture not looked at here. Physics is 100% certain! Quantum mechanics require too much "decoding." Thinking like this helps me rid myself from discrete thinking. Some people believe that " god " created the universe, rather this is true or not I decided to include " another" intangible example god as a " man made" creation like a manifold's direction and or compass pointing to the North Pole here on earth. Example: I have not seen any other method for compass needles pointing in other directions other than here on earth's north having an axial tilt of roughly 24.4 degrees "out here" yes I know North is South So as with god I have not heard anything else but good people going to Heaven Do you see my comparison? May be vague but I try lol. In regards to any atlases "Suspected Lay Lines" have been here on earth for quite some time. It appears there are many types of atlases as their are gods. God being Supreme and an Atlas as the Eye in Space. So the confusion behind cooridinents like you said relies on "relative condition or positions in space" all of which use numbers and imaginary units " that are highly needed, valued relied on etc. The "REAL PROBLEM HERE" There is and only has been "from what I know" one earth and one atlas for earth by human design. These rather longitudes/latitudes, lay lines, Minkowski Coordinates, Cartesian. Lorentz, Dopplers and etc, are man made copies of non physical behavior.... Unless of coarse there is more to a " ratio" pi being one of them that we are not seeing as Fibonacci being thus space time itself connected to discreet dimension rather pointless values and numbers, that is boring. To add every unit no matter how big or small is a dimension with mas and energy held in "space" Thinka about it.. No matter how complex, we still use 2D circles and diameters in our current age, they just have different names attached to them..

When you say "transform" what does this mean??? To move? Scale? Is this a Cartesian Coordinate Systems? Polar Form? If so that is the same as an Atlas or Manifold copies of imaginary units "static" and these are relative to an axial tilt like earth?? Inertial frames to another " then" are invisible " god is also invisible." How then can this be "physics and science" compared to digital discrete quanta?

No not all! I think you probably stated the inverse by sheer intuition.I don't really agree that the speed of light is everywhere though, there indeed is a reference point due to the quantum of action. From what I gather Max Plank in a "kiln" used stationary standing waves in black body radiation for the h constant it also has an angular h bar. Either the h bar and h constants are not "real" hence digital or this "everywhere" for the mass-less speeds of light is a hyper digital cube of some kind hence "kiln". The reasoning being "again" Max Plank in a "kiln" used stationary standing waves in black body radiation. I believe in "philosophy here" that before one is born they travel to and from points in space, thus when they are "born" "with mass" this then defines speeds of light "relative" and or quantized to the person's energy ie spirit etc " here on "earth." Earth from what I gather has equal amounts of positive and negative electrons making it a great semiconductor and hence reference point in " space" not to mention precession and seasons. Currently it is around Winter Solstice in the South, and Summer Solstice in the North, surly planet earth does not share the same years, or am I wrong about this? This is also why I doubt the speed of light to be everywhere all at once " unless this everywhere is a digital hyper cube " hence" h quantum world with the later mentioned. Thanks.. Could this point of view from the photon be the same as a kilm in where Max Plank found his h constant and h bar constants in connection to the speed of light? A photon is said to be "everywhere mass-less" can this everywhere be this kilm? Can the kilm be infact a hyper cube of some kind that is relative to earth?

How can someone "age" if they were traveling on a light photon? I have read and I am sure many are familiar with this question here, however if the speed of light is constant and flows in a "straight direction" or omni "massless" then where does this photon "turn" to register a cycle of earth time?? Example: An earth year = 365 days in a year because earth goes around the sun right? So my question may be "where" does the speed of light "cycle" "turn" "orbit that gives the age of someone traveling on a light photon?? Would this not violate E= mc squared? And if so does the squaring of the speed of light above have anything to do with time loops? This may be rather vague to ask from professionals here but no question is ever a dumb one Thanks in advance!

Opps, sorry I should have specified "time as a dimension" this makes more sense even to me now thanks. Infact this is what I study "only" " time." However I do understand the generalization of science, physics and quantum science. The value of 6.62606957(29)×10+25 j*s is a dummy number for now, however the exponent 10+25 is part of my find. When I say 0 squared I mean as a number times itself which are now multiples of itself as "time dimensions." I assume it is = 0 squared, but not sure if this is standard to say in science. You are very correct that units of j*s is not dependent on dimensions and that it is energy*seconds, but isn't dimensions dependent on time though??? Particle Waves are a good example: Here is a good link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave%E2%80%93particle_duality I have further read and heard that mass-less particles such as bosons and or light photons have no mass and do not exist in this dimension, I assume that this is where Quantum Mechanics comes in, but on that I am not sure either. Another example uses I believe Polar Coordinates and imaginary units to theorize some postulates with this imaginary unit as a number theory. The Gravity Problem is an excellent example as well as the speed of light, gravity and the h constant seem to be all bundled up as 1 " somehow." Here is a great "lengthy" video from particle physicist: The Gravity Problem http://topdocumentaryfilms.com/what-on-earth-is-wrong-with-gravity/ To add to my reply, I am working with space vectors that seem to show a discrepancy on the h constant and the angular momentum of quantification. The original calculations seem to have been taken " within a barrier of pi ratio." YES I know that sounds crazy! But this area seems to loop back and fourth in to separate directions as 1+ and 1- as in number lines -1 2- 3- 0 1+ 2+ 3+. Depending on how I use the speed of light in my algo rhythm the looping always = h "or" the reduced h bar for angular momentum of quantification again depending on how I use the speed of light in my algo rhythm. But my results seems to be exponentially positive to a galactic scale, this I am 100% sure of no doubt about it. I am convinced that there is more to time due to the discrete amounts of quantifiable energy states within the atomic orbitals, they seem to be set and or the boson travels with a pre-defined direction. This may sound totally crazy, but I believe that the first Bohr Model that depicted " a solar system and planets" was highly underestimated. To break this mathematical loop I have devised my own mathematics to see where the loop was and what integers did the looping. To me this not only saves time but frustration using formulas with pre-set variables in combination with classical physics. What these space vectors allow me to find is calculated "domains" outside of the h constant's "forbidden regions" this I am very sure of. However, due to the nature of my findings thus far, and the " un-believable" results, I truly doubt anyone would believe me. So I am taking things step by step to build myself and show the science community some results. Honestly however, I have no method to test these result in a science domain, however with these large numbers I already know it is impossible, but may be wrong on that to. What I would truly like to know if there could exist an h constant of the galactic scale as pure energy. This would further make me more comfortable speaking about more findings and questions before I move on... Thanks for the reply. http://www.nhn.ou.edu/~kieran/reuhome/vizqm/8decwave.htm

Hello everyone Happy Summer! I am new and not as skilled as professionals here, however I will attempt my best at asking some questions I have for the science community in hopes to better understand some research I have been on for quite some time. My question: Can there ever exist an h constant to the Galactic Scale. I do understand that h = 6.62606957(29)×10−34 j*s I see the "negative exponent" and see that it is rather a small quanta of energy. Can this exponent in the h constant of 10−34 j*s " be scaled" to a larger system's dimensions having a positive exponent within the standards of known science ?? And if so, then can these be two h constants then???? The original of: 6.62606957(29)×10-34 j*s And the other as 6.62606957(29)×10+25 j*s As in doubles that work both forward and reverse as in +1 and -1 = 0 squared? The reasoning behind this is because h appears to have issues when trying to unify this with the actual SI units themselves. From what I gather Albert Einstein's Unification Attempt involved this issue too. Here is a link and the "copy pasted" area in regard to my question under the Title: Determination http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planck_constant There are both practical and theoretical difficulties in determining h. The practical difficulties can be illustrated by the fact that the two most accurate methods, the watt balance and the X-ray crystal density method, do not appear to agree with one another However, there are other issues with the hidden variable theory in where it states the following hidden variable theories were espoused by some physicists who argued that the state of a physical system, as formulated by quantum mechanics, does not give a complete description for the system. Here is the link under the Title: Hidden variable theory https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hidden_variable_theory Thanks in Advance, Hope to hear from you!