Capiert Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 (edited) Mass m vs speed_difference v "trade_off" is very important for conservation of momentum (com). Unfortunately conservation of energy (coe) doesn't see (=conceptualize) things the same way, & instead (some sort of) a speed_squared vs (single) mass relevance exists (or should it?)! E.g. How can both laws be valid, when they seem to contradict? Does (kinetic) energy really have a mass vs speed_squared trade off? E.g. in collisions. If NOT, then why do we use it (=(the) energy_construct)? That's 4 questions. Thanks in advance. Edited December 28, 2016 by Capiert
swansont Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 KE is not conserved, except under specific conditions (e.g elastic collision, where it's conserved by definition), so the v^2 objection is moot.
Sriman Dutta Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 Both the conservation laws hold true. Besides, there's also the conversation of mass. In case of collisions between two bodies having their masses as [math]m_1[/math] and [math]m_2[/math] respectively and velocities before collision as [math]u_1[/math] and [math]u_2[/math] and after collision, as [math]v_1[/math] and [math]v_2[/math] respectively, then the following equation holds true - [math]m_1u_1+m_2u_2=m_1v_1+m_2v_2[/math]
Capiert Posted December 28, 2016 Author Posted December 28, 2016 What is moot? Both the conservation laws hold true. Besides, there's also the conversation of mass. In case of collisions between two bodies having their masses as [math]m_1[/math] and [math]m_2[/math] respectively and velocities before collision as [math]u_1[/math] and [math]u_2[/math] and after collision, as [math]v_1[/math] and [math]v_2[/math] respectively, then the following equation holds true - [math]m_1u_1+m_2u_2=m_1v_1+m_2v_2[/math] That looks like only com.
swansont Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 What is moot? You are objecting to something that's not generally true. KE is only conserved when there is no other avenue for energy loss, so it's then conserved by definition. IOW it's only conserved in a special, specific case. Your objection is moot.
studiot Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 In Newtonian mechanics, the total mechanical energy of an isolated system is conserved. Energy may be swapped between individual reservoirs of energy. Often these are just Kinetic Energy and Potential Energy. Further energy can be introduced into the system by outside agents, at the expense of removing the isolation constraint. -1
swansont Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 In Newtonian mechanics, the total mechanical energy of an isolated system is conserved. . As long as there's no friction.
studiot Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 As long as there's no friction. Indeed this is true.
Sriman Dutta Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 Here's a simple demonstration of the law of coe. Take a ball of mass m and at height h above the ground. At that height: PE=mgh, KE=0, Total E=KE+PE=mgh At midway, when ball is at a height of x above ground level, velocity of ball(v)=sqrt(2g(h-x)) PE=mgx, KE=0.5mv^2=0.5m(2g(h-x))=mgh-mgx, Total E=KE+PE=mgh At the ground, velocity(v)=sqrt(2gh) PE=0(since height=0), KE=0.5mv^2=0.5m(2gh)=mgh, Total E=KE+PE=mgh
Capiert Posted December 28, 2016 Author Posted December 28, 2016 You are objecting to something that's not generally true. KE is only conserved when there is no other avenue for energy loss, so it's then conserved by definition. IOW it's only conserved in a special, specific case. Your objection is moot.Please use a non_ambiguous word. (I'm unfamiliar with moot vocabulary.)Should I assume you mean trivial or discussable? Perhaps the later?
swansont Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 Please use a non_ambiguous word. (I'm unfamiliar with moot vocabulary.) Should I assume you mean trivial or discussable? Perhaps the later? It's a non-issue. KE is not a generally conserved quantity. You are objecting to a fictitious problem.
Capiert Posted December 28, 2016 Author Posted December 28, 2016 (edited) It's a non-issue. KE is not a generally conserved quantity. You are objecting to a fictitious problem.So bad?Is not KE part of the Lagrangian (PE & KE equation)? If the parts are not dimensioned correctly how can we expect the coe to behave correctly? Edited December 28, 2016 by Capiert
swansont Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 So bad? Is not KE part of the Lagrangian (PE & KE equation)? If the parts are not dimensioned correctly how can we expect the coe to behave correctly? They have the correct dimensions. This is another non-issue
Capiert Posted December 28, 2016 Author Posted December 28, 2016 They have the correct dimensions. This is another non-issueCorrect dimensions, perhaps; but conflicting proportions.It looks like here is no place for discussion. Is there any reason why dark energy exists?
swansont Posted December 29, 2016 Posted December 29, 2016 Correct dimensions, perhaps; but conflicting proportions. It looks like here is no place for discussion. Is there any reason why dark energy exists? Since they are variables, how do you know the proportions are "conflicting"? This would be a place to discuss it, if you weren't spouting nonsense, and dark energy is not related to anything you've brought up so far in this thread.
Capiert Posted December 29, 2016 Author Posted December 29, 2016 Since they are variables, how do you know the proportions are "conflicting"?This would be a place to discuss it, if you weren't spouting nonsense, and dark energy is not related to anything you've brought up so far in this thread.If I attempt to derive the KEs from (squaring added) momentums, I find that energy does NOT always add (correctly).I get an unusal relation which seems to agree with both (for the most part). The excel table shows occational annomalies.
Sriman Dutta Posted December 29, 2016 Posted December 29, 2016 [math]KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2=\frac{1}{2}pv=\frac{p^2}{2m}[/math]
Capiert Posted December 29, 2016 Author Posted December 29, 2016 (edited) Yes. mom^2~2*mE (pronounced "to me") mom squared is approximately twice the mass multiplied by the energy. Ruffly momomentum mom=m*v, postscript numbers then apply for a non_elastic collision, when squaring both sides (mom1+mom2)^2=(mom3)^2. My older versions used KE~m*(v^2)/2, also applying postscript numbers. The final kinetic energy KE3#KE2+KE1 is NOT the sum of the 2, but instead KE3~(((m1*KE1)^0.5)+((m2*KE2)^0.5)^2)/(m1+m2). As you can see, that is NOT simple addition. But if masses are identical then fewer problems happen (= & it (=KE3 total) behaves more like simple addition of both energies) because as it looks energy does NOT add (properly=correctly, all the time). Edited December 29, 2016 by Capiert -1
Capiert Posted December 29, 2016 Author Posted December 29, 2016 (edited) Maybe. What would you like to know? E.g. All the intermediate steps? Or what does it mean? Add 2 momentums mom1=m1*v1 & mom2=m2*v2 in a non_elastic collision, so their final momentum together is mom3=m3*v3. Before the collision the 1st mass is m1, the 2nd mass is m2; & after the collision they are stuck together as a 3rd final mass m3=m2+m1. Their initial speeds (before the collision) are v1 for the 1st mass & v2 for the 2nd mass. After the collision both masses (m1&m2=m3) have a common (final) speed v3. (All speeds are wrt earth as 0 m/s). Adding both momentums gives mom1+mom2=mom3, square both sides (m1*v1+m2*v2)^2=(m3*v3)^2 Should I continue? Or can you take it from there? Edited December 29, 2016 by Capiert
Tahir Gorgen Posted December 29, 2016 Posted December 29, 2016 I think the topic starter misunderstood kinteic energy. Maybey I think this because of my bad langueage. You can calculate the mass, if you know the speed^2 you had and mass with a velocity. (You just divide the velocity with the mass and then take the v^^ (root) of the speed^2 You can do it yourselfs and see If youre rigth. You can say m1+m2=m3. But v1+v2 is never v3. Btw velocity is a worth they grant in kinetic energy, for objects with a mass and in movement. It's not it's speed. Maybey some one else can explain this. The difference between speed and what kinetic energy and velocity is?
Tahir Gorgen Posted December 29, 2016 Posted December 29, 2016 Edit: difide the velocity with half times the mass and than difide it with the root of the speed^2 you had. If you set the velocity of 2 diferended masses. You can calculate and figure out yourself, if you are right with v1+v2=v3. I have tried it and it did'nt make a sense. Mass1+(the mass of an other body/object)+ mass2=mass3
Tahir Gorgen Posted December 29, 2016 Posted December 29, 2016 Only with the same speed, they would have a combined velocity, but I am not going to tell this, because I want to be wrong once. I hate this queue
swansont Posted December 29, 2016 Posted December 29, 2016 If I attempt to derive the KEs from (squaring added) momentums, I find that energy does NOT always add (correctly). I get an unusal relation which seems to agree with both (for the most part). The excel table shows occational annomalies. KE is not a conserved quantity. Why would you expect it to always "add correctly"?
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