Dianff Posted February 3, 2017 Posted February 3, 2017 Hi, Is there anybody can help me solve the problem below? I now have a function f(t) = 1/(p(t)+1) * dp(t)/dx. How can I convert this into Laplace domain. Thanks.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now