Sarahisme Posted May 24, 2005 Share Posted May 24, 2005 hey, if anyone is willing, could they please give me a bit of help with this problem, i just can't quite figure it out! Thanks -Sarah Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted May 24, 2005 Share Posted May 24, 2005 V=IR The current is going to depend on the voltage, which is given, and the impedance. What is the impedance of the circuit? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 24, 2005 Author Share Posted May 24, 2005 I = V/Z , where Z is the impedance? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Douglas Posted May 24, 2005 Share Posted May 24, 2005 The inductive reactance (XL) of the coil is 2*pi*f*L where f and L are 50Hz and and .07 henries respectively The resistor ® and inductor (L) are in series, sooo, the impedance (Z) equals sqrt of (R squared + XL squared) the angle equals arc tan of (XL ÷ R) If I recall, from ELI the ICE man, voltage leads current. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 24, 2005 Author Share Posted May 24, 2005 thanks douglas Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Douglas Posted May 24, 2005 Share Posted May 24, 2005 Sarah, at first I was thinking that the resistance and inductance were in parallel, then I decided they were in series, sooooo, you posted the "thanks" while I was editing my post. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 24, 2005 Author Share Posted May 24, 2005 oh ok, lol , thats cool Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 24, 2005 Author Share Posted May 24, 2005 ok i think the main equation to be used is the "General equation for motional emf", however i am not quite sure how to apply it.... anyways this was the design i was thinking of ... (i have decided to make a simple theoretical generator first)... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 24, 2005 Author Share Posted May 24, 2005 how would you work out the induced emf in the loop(s) of wire if you spun it around in the magnetic field created by those 2 magnets? (the magnets are held stationary)?? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 25, 2005 Author Share Posted May 25, 2005 oops posted in wrong thread Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 26, 2005 Author Share Posted May 26, 2005 The inductive reactance (XL) of the coil is 2*pi*f*Lwhere f and L are 50Hz and and .07 henries respectively The resistor ® and inductor (L) are in series' date=' sooo, the impedance (Z) equals sqrt of (R squared + XL squared) the angle equals arc tan of (XL ÷ R) If I recall, from ELI the ICE man, voltage leads current.[/quote'] how does this use voltage? and i don't really see where the amplitude of the current in the coil is being worked out? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 26, 2005 Author Share Posted May 26, 2005 oh wait, is Ipeak = Vpeak/XL ?? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Douglas Posted May 26, 2005 Share Posted May 26, 2005 how does this use voltage? and i don't really see where the amplitude of the current in the coil is being worked out?Swansont gave you the formula Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 29, 2005 Author Share Posted May 29, 2005 ok, thanks thanks everyone for your help! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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