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Posted

1.If a metal(Cu) is negatively charged, and is put to touch an another neutral metal(Zn), the extra charges are shared by both metal.

But, doesn't metals tend to lose e-?

2.Why production of charge by friction cannot use a conductor and an insulation? My Guess:

The charge will flow back to the metal if the charge from metal went into the insulator.

Something that reject my thought: Metal loses e- more readily than an insulator, so it should not absorb e- unless the insulator does not.

 

 

To sum up, I think there are something laws or theory in physics which explains the readiness of losing electrons and the dealing with extra charge. Please tell me.

Posted

1) If you have a fully conducting sphere of charge -2q, on it's own not touching anything else, and another fully conducting sphere charge 0, which is identicle to the first, and you connect them together with a wire which is infinitly conductive, and small enough so that it is irrelevent in calculations, the charge over the whole system is -2q if you disconnect the wire then each sphere has charge -q on them. This is because there is no where else for the charges to go, the potential at the surface of both spheres has to be the same, and as they are identicle then the charge contained has to be the same...

 

2) I can't actually remember it's something to do with as their are more free electrons on the conductor they will flow back there every time it is rubed against the insulator, so a VERY small charge is built up on the insulator it is just insignificant...

Posted

Because there is a force on the charges, and sharing the electrons will lower the potential energy of the system.

 

In conductors, charges are free to flow (the conduction band). If you are looking at it from a chemistry standpoint, that would be a mistake - these aren't individual atoms accepting an electron - the conduction band contains shared electrons from all the atoms, so any given electron can't be thought of as belonging to any individual atom.

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