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I understand energy comes in discrete packets, is there evidence that the same may be true of space or time?

Although this may be speculative, my own personal understanding is that they are independent of one another, but not mutually exclusive. In a double slit experiment, the perception of a waveform of light or even massive particles, collapses the wave to display properties that are more particle-like. If this perception takes place after the wave passes through the slit, or even if the choice to observe the waveform wasn't made until it has passed the slits, it will always change the way the waveform interacted with the slits. This seems to defy logic because there is no explaination of the mechanics that can easily describe how the wave could know it was going to be perceived before the observer knew.

 

This to me demonstrates, empirically, that "spacetime" is actually "space and/or time". This data would also suggest that there seems to be a preference for space over time. The reason I would suggest this spatial dominince over time, is that in order for this confounding result to take place, time must have a null value. The spatial requirement that as a particle takes precedence, because the behavior of it is predictable using the physics we're all familiar with. The time variable becomes completely unfamiliar.

 

I have attempted a version of this same experiment to see if the preference could be switched to time over the spatial perception. The experiment is designed to examine the constraints, if any, of the separation of space and time. "A question of perceptual manipulation" attempts to isolate the time by giving it precedence over spatial position. A possible predictable continuity in exchange for a nondescript spatial displacement.

Edited by AbnormallyHonest
Posted

Although this may be speculative, my own personal understanding is that they are independent of one another, but not mutually exclusive. In a double slit experiment, the perception of a waveform of light or even massive particles, collapses the wave to display properties that are more particle-like. If this perception takes place after the wave passes through the slit, or even if the choice to observe the waveform wasn't made until it has passed the slits, it will always change the way the waveform interacted with the slits. This seems to defy logic because there is no explaination of the mechanics that can easily describe how the wave could know it was going to be perceived before the observer knew.

This to me demonstrates, empirically, that "spacetime" is actually "space and/or time". This data would also suggest that there seems to be a preference for space over time. The reason I would suggest this spatial dominince over time, is that in order for this confounding result to take place, time must have a null value. The spatial requirement that as a particle takes precedence, because the behavior of it is predictable using the physics we're all familiar with. The time variable becomes completely unfamiliar.

I have attempted a version of this same experiment to see if the preference could be switched to time over the spatial perception. The experiment is designed to examine the constraints, if any, of the separation of space and time. "A question of perceptual manipulation" attempts to isolate the time by giving it precedence over spatial position. A possible predictable continuity in exchange for a nondescript spatial displacement.

Two problems here: 1) answers to questions should be based on mainstream physics, not speculations

2) you've brought this up elsewhere. It should be confined to a single thread

 

Both of those constitute thread hijacking, hence the move to the trash

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