Coder Posted May 20, 2017 Share Posted May 20, 2017 Hello all, This is my first post here as I am new here. My question is in this proof listed below in the image. I can't understand a line how is this possible in Boolean Algebra. Any help will be appreciated. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
KipIngram Posted May 20, 2017 Share Posted May 20, 2017 Truth table: X Y | X+X.Y | 0 0 | 0 0 1 | 0 1 0 | 1 1 1 | 1 So X+X.Y = X for every case. Intuitively, if X is true then the result is true (the second term doesn't matter). if X is false, then the second term is false too. The line you questioned, specifically, is 1+Y = 1. But that's just the definition of logical OR - if either term is true then the OR of the terms is true. 3 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Endy0816 Posted May 20, 2017 Share Posted May 20, 2017 Domination laws(in case required to specify). https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logical_equivalence Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Coder Posted May 21, 2017 Author Share Posted May 21, 2017 Truth table: X Y | X+X.Y | 0 0 | 0 0 1 | 0 1 0 | 1 1 1 | 1 So X+X.Y = X for every case. Intuitively, if X is true then the result is true (the second term doesn't matter). if X is false, then the second term is false too. The line you questioned, specifically, is 1+Y = 1. But that's just the definition of logical OR - if either term is true then the OR of the terms is true. Now my doubt is cleared. Thanks for helping. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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