CPL.Luke Posted June 11, 2005 Posted June 11, 2005 alright so I have a textbook on quantum mechanics that I'm going through and it comes to the schrodinger equation and tells me to use a wavefunction equal to [math]f(x)exp(-iEt/hbar)[/math] I insert that into the schrodinger equation wich is i* hbar *(partial derivative of the wavefunction with respect to t) = -hbar^2 /2m *(the second partial derivative of the wave function with respect to x) it said that this simplified to P.S. sorry about latex Ill play with it and see if I can figure out how to work it d^2 f(x)/dx^2 + (k^2)f(x)=0 this simplification shouldn't work this way because the wave function is of the form X(x)Y(y) right?
ydoaPs Posted June 11, 2005 Posted June 11, 2005 [math]i{\hbar}\frac{\partial}{{\partial}t}\Psi(r,t)=-\frac{{\hbar}^2}{2m}\Delta{\Psi}(r,t)[/math]
Tom Mattson Posted June 12, 2005 Posted June 12, 2005 d^2 f(x)/dx^2 + (k^2)f(x)=0 this simplification shouldn't work this way Yes' date=' it should work that way. In this case you will have [imath']k^2=\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}[/imath]. because the wave function is of the form X(x)Y(y) right? You mean X(x)T(t), right?
CPL.Luke Posted June 13, 2005 Author Posted June 13, 2005 yeah, I meant one function multiplied by anouther of another variable but thankyou for the answer oh yeah in order to do a second order partial differential equation do you need to have 1 of the functions given?
Dave Posted June 13, 2005 Posted June 13, 2005 No, you can assume the answer is X(t)T(t), and then obtain 2 ODEs from this, allowing you to get solutions fairly easily.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now