Is the circle area proof correct?

[DimaMazin]

Circle is shared by infinite quantity of equal triangles.  Sides a and b are radiuses of the circle.  Side c is chord,

A_t=1/4[(a+b+c)(-a+b+c)(a-b+c)(a+b-c)]^1/2

A_t=1/4[(2r+c)(c)(c)(2r-c)]^1/2

A_t=1/4[(4r²-c²)c²]^1/2

A_t=1/4[4r²c²-c⁴]^1/2

c=2Pi_*r / infinity

A_c= infinity_*A_t

A_c=(1/4)_*infinity[4r²4Pi²r² / infinity²-16Pi⁴r⁴ / infinity⁴]^1/2

A_c=1/4[16Pi²r⁴-16Pi⁴r⁴ / infinity²]^1/2

A_c=Pi_*r²

A_t is triangle area

A_cis circle area

 

[John Cuthber]

Do you mean like this
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Area_of_a_circle#Rearrangement_proof

 

[DimaMazin]

8 hours ago, John Cuthber said:

Do you mean like this
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Area_of_a_circle#Rearrangement_proof

 

What is similar of those?

[Strange]

Your proof is not correct because it includes things like multiplying and dividing by infinity. It could probably be reworked in terms of limits to come up with a valid proof.