BB123 Posted October 29, 2017 Posted October 29, 2017 (edited) I am not a professional in this field so please bear with my ignorance. I try to be science literate where ever I can. My question is: Do genetics broadly and haplogroups more specifically rule out humans descending from more than one gene pool of common ancestors? To put it another way: Could it be possible that there was more than one beginning of Homo Sapiens than a single population in Africa 200-300K years ago? Thanks. Edited October 29, 2017 by BB123
BB123 Posted November 20, 2017 Author Posted November 20, 2017 Let me be more specific to see if I can elicit some responses. This is primarily a population genetics question, I think. If we had not sequenced the nuclear genome of Neanderthals, could we have come to the conclusion that some of their DNA is in non-African haplogroups? If the answer to that question is yes, then how?
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