Yiyou Chen Posted November 26, 2017 Posted November 26, 2017 Does anyone know any evidence besides time dilation and Lorentz transformation that support the correctness of the Minkowski spacetime model? Thanks!
Mordred Posted November 26, 2017 Posted November 26, 2017 Redshift, muon decay rates, everyday particle accelerators, detection of GW waves, light deflection due to spacetime curvature, direct tests of time dilation, GPS satellites, weak and strong equivalency tests. The list goes on and on. Its one of the most strongly tested theories https://www.google.ca/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://arxiv.org/pdf/1705.04397&ved=0ahUKEwigo-PF2tvXAhUB3WMKHVD0B9IQFggmMAM&usg=AOvVaw054EguS3mqzq8k-KfOkm8o Here is an arxiv dissertation on the tests Considering all the attempts to prove SR/GR wrong they all prove SR/GR as being incredibly accurate. It was one of the more tested theories as the majority hated the implications. However despite all the competitive attempts its born out as being highly accurate. PS once you understand it properly its incredibly easy to understand how time dilation and length contraction is involved. Though it takes a suspension of disbelief and proper study
geordief Posted November 26, 2017 Posted November 26, 2017 A historical question perhaps but is there any record of what gave Minkowski the idea for this representation? I understand Einstein was not pleased at first but came around. Was it Einstein that first discovered that the spacetime interval was invariant from all inertial FoRs? How did he get the idea for that minus sign? Did it just show up in the maths "uninvited" or was someone playing around with (4D?) hyperbolic geometry and did Einstein just notice the applicability?
phyti Posted November 30, 2017 Posted November 30, 2017 On 11/26/2017 at 6:02 AM, geordief said: A historical question perhaps but is there any record of what gave Minkowski the idea for this representation? I understand Einstein was not pleased at first but came around. Was it Einstein that first discovered that the spacetime interval was invariant from all inertial FoRs? How did he get the idea for that minus sign? Did it just show up in the maths "uninvited" or was someone playing around with (4D?) hyperbolic geometry and did Einstein just notice the applicability? Einstein began with 3 spatial dimensions xr and 1 time dimension. He believed the nature of time was different than that of space. For him the invariant interval was the spatial interval between events, since events don't move. The expression was x12 +x22 +x32 = c2t2 Minkowski wanted to generalize this to a 4D expression, since all the terms are distances. Using complex notation, with x4 = ict, the 4D expression is x12 +x22 +x32 + x42 = s2 Interestingly, distance to an object moving at constant speed is linear only for 1-dimensional head-on motion, and hyperbolic for all other paths with an offset, 2D. Light transit times vary accordingly. I.e., not originating from of Relativity.
Eise Posted December 1, 2017 Posted December 1, 2017 On 26/11/2017 at 12:02 PM, geordief said: A historical question perhaps but is there any record of what gave Minkowski the idea for this representation? Does this answer your questions? If not, just ask further.
geordief Posted December 1, 2017 Posted December 1, 2017 1 hour ago, Eise said: Does this answer your questions? If not, just ask further. Thanks ,that looks fascinating. Wish I had more head storage room. If that was made into a murder mystery(with time travel) it would make for a great whodunnit
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