BigMoosie Posted July 25, 2005 Posted July 25, 2005 Kind of a philisophical question... If I was told to cool down a boiling glass of water as fast as I could, would it make sense to tip the water out and replace it with fresh cold water? One could argue that the origional water was still hot and now on the floor. There is physically nothing except for the difference of energy to separate the two samples. Is it possible to say that the new water is not the old water?
d22k Posted July 25, 2005 Posted July 25, 2005 you were told to cool down THAT glass of water, not present them with a galss of cold water.
radiohead Posted July 26, 2005 Posted July 26, 2005 Well, if you want to go all scientific and stuff, you could go into the amount of lead in the water that you poured out and the amount of lead in the new water and compare them.
BigMoosie Posted July 26, 2005 Author Posted July 26, 2005 Well, if you want to go all scientific and stuff, you could go into the amount of lead in the water that you poured out and the amount of lead in the new water and compare them. Presuming that both samples are 100% H20 with no impurities. you were told to cool down THAT glass of water, not present them with a galss of cold water. Other than by following the glasses with your eyes, how would you know it is different? I could have two glasses of water and they could instantaneously swap (warp) and there would be no information in the universe to suggest that they did.
Callipygous Posted July 26, 2005 Posted July 26, 2005 Other than by following the glasses with your eyes, how would you know it is different? I could have two glasses of water and they could instantaneously swap (warp) and there would be no information in the universe to suggest that they did. and yet we would still KNOW that it is not the same glass of water. if a tree falls in the forest and no one is there to hear it does it still make a sound? YES!!!!! for the love of christ YES. there is no discussion about this. human perception does not alter the facts of the universe...
YT2095 Posted July 26, 2005 Posted July 26, 2005 it took me a while to think about a test to determine if water had been heated or not, turns out that the cold water in the glass WILL in fact be different than the water that had been heated! the heated water would have evaporated somewhat at 100c leaving a higher concentration of D2O (heavy water) as that boils at a slightly higher temperature yes there Would be a difference, your puzzle is now solved
BigMoosie Posted July 26, 2005 Author Posted July 26, 2005 OK, close to boiling then... About the heavy water, how big is the difference in boiling point? Is it possible to attain heavy water simply by keeping the water at the correct temperature?
gnpatterson Posted August 23, 2005 Posted August 23, 2005 In chemical terms the easiest difference to detect is the presence or absence of dissolved air. You can see the air coming coming out of the water when you freeze it, boiled and cooled water gives clear icecubes while unboiled water gives cloudy icecubes. In philosophical terms the question is to difficult for me. Does a tree-fall make a sound if no-one hears it? I think probably yes but i cant say why
LazerFazer Posted October 28, 2005 Posted October 28, 2005 Well, if a tree falls in a forest, is there still the sound wave? Yes,there is sound, but there is no NOISE, because noise is just our ear's interpretation of the sound waves. And yes, you can tell the difference between boiled and unboiled water, as has been stated here prior to my post. LF
byte4byte Posted October 28, 2005 Posted October 28, 2005 Kind of a philisophical question... If I was told to cool down a boiling glass of water as fast as I could' date=' ...[/quote'] Put it in a vaccuum... something my manufacturing-engineer-husband has taught me. I think swapping water would be outside the question/solution. Also, your response ... Well, if a tree falls in a forest, is there still the sound wave? Yes,there is sound, but there is no NOISE, because noise is just our ear's interpretation of the sound waves. ... I entirely agree!
clarisse Posted November 25, 2005 Posted November 25, 2005 Does a tree-fall make a sound if no-one hears it? No it doesn't because a sound is just vibrating particles in the air PERCEIVED by someone's ear!!! so the vibrating particles in the air are just that and nothing else if there is no ear to process them and no brain to perceive them as sound...!! so the tree only disturbs the air as it falls down... but no it doesn't make any noise... It's just like the light waves our eyes don't perceive... we don't say they're colours, right??
cosine Posted November 25, 2005 Posted November 25, 2005 The other information in the universe would be the conservation of energy I believe. You put energy into that hot water, and if you don't cool it down, then that heat will still not leave to someplace else.
herpguy Posted December 11, 2005 Posted December 11, 2005 No it doesn't because a sound is just vibrating particles in the air PERCEIVED by someone's ear!!! so the vibrating particles in the air are just that and nothing else if there is no ear to process them and no brain to perceive them as sound...!! so the tree only disturbs the air as it falls down... but no it doesn't make any noise... It's just like the light waves our eyes don't perceive... we don't say they're colours' date=' right?? [/quote'] I disagree. It still makes a sound, there's just no way to prove it. The vibrations will still move, and just because we can't hear it that doesnt mean it doesnt make a sound. Def of sound: Transmitted vibrations of any frequency. (http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=sound)
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