Faeze Posted February 28, 2019 Posted February 28, 2019 I have an ordinary differential equation in the form of dp/dt=p-f(p). Since p and f(p) are bounded, any equilibrium of this ODE should satisfy p*=f(p*). I have another ODE in the form of dw/dt=g(w). I know this ODE diverges and because w is bounded between zero and one, at the equilibrium w* is zero or one. Now I consider a system that has p and w and both of them are changing which gives me two ODEs, dp/dt=p-f(p,w) and dw/dt=g(w,p). I know for any fixed w, we have p*=f(p*,w) at the equilibrium and for any fixed p, w* equals zero or one. Does anyone know if I can claim there is any equlibrium for general case and at the equilibrium p*=f(p*,w*) and w* equals zero or one?
studiot Posted February 28, 2019 Posted February 28, 2019 1 hour ago, Faeze said: I have an ordinary differential equation in the form of dp/dt=p-f(p). Since p and f(p) are bounded, any equilibrium of this ODE should satisfy p*=f(p*). I have another ODE in the form of dw/dt=g(w). I know this ODE diverges and because w is bounded between zero and one, at the equilibrium w* is zero or one. Now I consider a system that has p and w and both of them are changing which gives me two ODEs, dp/dt=p-f(p,w) and dw/dt=g(w,p). I know for any fixed w, we have p*=f(p*,w) at the equilibrium and for any fixed p, w* equals zero or one. Does anyone know if I can claim there is any equlibrium for general case and at the equilibrium p*=f(p*,w*) and w* equals zero or one? So would this be a pair of autonomous equations with [math]\varphi \left( p \right) = p - f\left( p \right)[/math]
Faeze Posted February 28, 2019 Author Posted February 28, 2019 17 minutes ago, studiot said: So would this be a pair of autonomous equations with φ(p)=p−f(p) Not sure. I am not familiar with this area that much. If we can write them as you said, what would we get?
studiot Posted February 28, 2019 Posted February 28, 2019 Well you haven't siad what f(p) is and I don't know why you have separated p from f(p), since phi (p) is still a function of p alone and makes the ODE autonomous. Here is a simple explanation of what is a single autonomous ODE https://sites.math.washington.edu/~aloveles/Math307Spring2016/m307Review2-5.pdf Here is some stuff about solving pairs of them https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1405497/solving-a-pair-of-odes?rq=1
Faeze Posted February 28, 2019 Author Posted February 28, 2019 35 minutes ago, studiot said: So would this be a pair of autonomous equations with φ(p)=p−f(p) Now I think yes they are autonomous equations 16 minutes ago, studiot said: Well you haven't siad what f(p) is and I don't know why you have separated p from f(p), since phi (p) is still a function of p alone and makes the ODE autonomous. Here is a simple explanation of what is a single autonomous ODE https://sites.math.washington.edu/~aloveles/Math307Spring2016/m307Review2-5.pdf Here is some stuff about solving pairs of them https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1405497/solving-a-pair-of-odes?rq=1 Thank you. The problem is f(p) is not an explicit function of p. And I do not want to solve this ODE. My question is if I can say something about the equilibriun of a system with these two ODEs when I have information that I mentioned?
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