Primarygun Posted July 30, 2005 Posted July 30, 2005 This is the problems on the 46th International Mathematical Olympiad. My friends got excellent result from it, some of them are still very young, the youngest is 2 years smaller than me. That could depress me much. [as I even could not get the qualification to join the competition] http://gifted.hkedcity.net/Gifted/ActReview/imo2005Mexico/pdf/1dayenglish.pdf http://gifted.hkedcity.net/Gifted/ActReview/imo2005Mexico/pdf/2dayenglish.pdf
DQW Posted July 31, 2005 Posted July 31, 2005 I know I'm screwing up somewhere, but Q2 (day 1) looks trivial to me. Anyone else looked at this ?
Dave Posted July 31, 2005 Posted July 31, 2005 Personally I'd say it looks the most managable (for me, at least). Don't know about trivial, but I've not doodled with it yet so I couldn't really say. I hate these kind of questions though - I just don't have the brain for them.
DQW Posted July 31, 2005 Posted July 31, 2005 Okay, I must be making some really silly mistake here as it looks to me like a one-line proof. Let me lay my head on the guillotine and actually write this down : Assume [imath]a_p = a_q [/imath] for some q>p, then [imath]a_p \equiv a_q~ (mod~ q) [/imath]; but this is not possible since all of the first q terms leave different remainders with q. Hence the assumption was wrong. QED. Feel free to let the blade drop...it won't hurt my feelings !
matt grime Posted August 1, 2005 Posted August 1, 2005 That certainly shows that any integer occuring in the sequence occurs at most once, but doesn't show that every integer is in the sequence.
DQW Posted August 1, 2005 Posted August 1, 2005 Thanks matt. I misread the last line. This makes it non-trivial.
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