SgtCheesyBread Posted April 26, 2019 Posted April 26, 2019 Hello, I have a question which may be trivial but I cannot seem to wrap my head around it: I ordered a certain antibody from an US american vendor, which was delivered to me in form of a powder and I dilluted it to 1mg/1ml for my experiments. I used 50µl to achieve that concentration, just as suggested by the vendor. I used samples with 0.2µl, 2µl and 4µl of my AB solution for my experiments, and it worked perfectly fine. MY antibody ran out and I wanted to ordered some more, problem was, the vendor changed their product and they are only selling the antibody in a concentration of 0.1mg/1ml anymore. I know the formula c1V1 = c2V2. Would that mean I have to use ten times the amount to achieve the same results in my experiments? Meaning, 2, 20 and 40µl? Thank you very much for your help. Greetings,
CharonY Posted April 26, 2019 Posted April 26, 2019 It is easiest just to look at the concentration. In the original vial you have 1mg in 1 mL solution. In the second vial you got 0.1mg in the same volume, which is (as you correctly pointed out) a tenth of 1 mg. Using a formula seems to complicate things here in my mind.
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