Is it possible for a particle to be in two time frames simultaneously?

[thethinkertank]

Is it for example, possible for a particle to exist in t1 and t2 simultaneously?

Or is it possible for a particle A to exist as two particles simultaneously?

If that's not possible then explain things like telepathy through scientic means?

Edited June 18, 2019 by thethinkertank

[Strange]

7 minutes ago, thethinkertank said:

Is it for example, possible for a particle to exist in t1 and t2 simultaneously?

What exactly do you mean by "time frame"? What exactly do you mean by "t1" and "t2"?

7 minutes ago, thethinkertank said:

Or is it possible for a particle A to exist as two particles simultaneously?

You could look up "virtual particles"; this might be relevant to what you are thinking. (It is hard to know what you are thinking.)

Or maybe look up "superposition": a particle can be in a state where it has two ore more values for some properties.

7 minutes ago, thethinkertank said:

If that's not possible then explain things like telepathy through scientic means?

First you would need some evidence that telepathy actually exists. (Hint: it doesn't.)

[thethinkertank]

Just now, Strange said:

What exactly do you mean by "time frame"? What exactly do you mean by "t1" and "t2"?

You could look up "virtual particles"; this might be relevant to what you are thinking. (It is hard to know what you are thinking.)

Or maybe look up "superposition": a particle can be in a state where it has two ore more values for some properties.

First you would need some evidence that telepathy actually exists. (Hint: it doesn't.)

I mean from the point of view of the particle, it exists before that which caused it to exist.

For example, a person being run over by a bus hits the ground BEFORE the bus hits him. 

THEN because he hit the ground the bus hits him, as opposed to vice versa.

Is that scientifically possible? 

 

Oh telepathy exists. Sure of it. I can even prove it but not in this thread. I have my own ideas as to why it happens. 

[Ghideon]

2 minutes ago, thethinkertank said:

I mean from the point of view of the particle, it exists before that which caused it to exist.

For example, a person being run over by a bus hits the ground BEFORE the bus hits him. 

THEN because he hit the ground the bus hits him, as opposed to vice versa.

Is that scientifically possible? 

Trying to guess what you mean, are you asking about causality* ? 

No, it is not possible as far as I know. Causality cannot occur between an effect and an event that is not in the back (past) light cone of said effect. Similarly, a cause cannot have an effect outside its front (future) light cone.

Advice: If you what to ask something, try using words you understand instead of posting random "science-looking" phrases that no-one will be able to decrypt.

 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causality_(physics)

 

[DrP]

12 minutes ago, thethinkertank said:

Oh telepathy exists. Sure of it. I can even prove it but not in this thread. I have my own ideas as to why it happens.

If you can prove it then you could win some money. Most cases coincidence and normal thinking/empathy. We are humans and think similarly (generalisation) - sometimes we think the same things at the same time.

We've discussed it over and over a few times. We'd need to discuss it there or in new thread I think....  but being honest  -  don't bother. ;-)

https://www.scienceforums.net/topic/113154-telepathy-and-brain-waves/?tab=comments#comment-1035859

https://www.scienceforums.net/topic/113154-telepathy-and-brain-waves/?tab=comments#comment-1035855

https://www.scienceforums.net/topic/93076-telekinesis-telepathy-and-their-impact-on-science-absolutely-none/?tab=comments#comment-900608

https://www.scienceforums.net/topic/84248-can-telepathy-aid-belief-in-a-god/?page=2&tab=comments#comment-816107

https://www.scienceforums.net/topic/81564-can-geomagnetic-activity-affect-telepathy-michael-persinger/?tab=comments#comment-789719

https://www.scienceforums.net/topic/40628-telepathy-is-not-illogical/?page=4&tab=comments#comment-499878

 

 

[Phi for All]

21 minutes ago, thethinkertank said:

Oh telepathy exists. Sure of it. I can even prove it but not in this thread. I have my own ideas as to why it happens. 

By this assertion, I can now tell you don't know much about about biology and evolution either. We can add those to your lack of knowledge about physics and cosmology. 

Besides zero evidence for telepathy, knowing how traits are passed along to future generations tells us that if there was an ability that connects minds, it would spread and strengthen very quickly after just a few generations. An enormous advantage like that couldn't be overlooked by evolution, yet we still have zero evidence that it exists. So good luck trying to tie that to virtual particles.

Btw, something else you have wrong is the idea of "proof". Science isn't interested in "proving" anything. Science looks ALWAYS for the best supported explanations for various phenomena. That's why they're called "theories" instead of "answers". Theories are more powerful because we're always trying to improve them.

[CharonY]

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