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Posted

hi all ,

 

i can't figure out how i am ment to use the stated fact about tan x.

 

the way i'd do it is dividing the series expansion for cos(x) into that for sin(x)... but yeah i dunno

 

any advice would be greatly appreciated

 

__sarah__

Picture 4.png

Posted

there is second part to this question, and again i could do it by other means, but not using the given fact

 

this is the second part to the question:

Picture 5.png

Posted

(a) You are given two things. The FIRST thing that would come to my mind is to substitute the first into the second ...

 

(b) Having said (a), I shouldn't say anything more.

 

Sarah, these are nothing more than direct substitution problems.

Posted

(a) You are given 2 things :

 

1. tan(x) is analytic in (-pi/2, pi/2)

2. tan(x) is odd

 

Substitute the expansion (from 1) in the equation for 2.

Posted

oh wait its like an identity or something, 1 + tan^{2} = sec^{2) or something like that, damn i wish i had textbook with me right now

Posted

I was talking about part (a), not part (b)

 

Apply the power series expansion to each side of the given equation (the "fact"). What do you get ?

Posted

oh ok then you expand it like this....

 

 

therefore all n even terms are zero (assuming you start from n = 1 right?)

 

lol....now for part b! dammit

Posted

How do you show that the even terms are zero ? It does not matter what value of n you start from, for the even terms to vanish (but in any case, you start with n=0 because that term is part of a general power series).

Posted

ok so i have got this much so far for part (b), but as i said before i then get a infinte sum squared and i don't know how to deal with such a thing!

Picture 10.png

Posted

(a) You have a tiny error in post #14. Why did a_0 change signs on the RHS ?

 

(b) You are not asked for all the coefficients, right ? So, just write out the first few terms (I'll let you figure out how many you need to write), square it, and compare coefficients.

Posted
(a) You have a tiny error in post #14. Why did a_0 change signs on the RHS ?

 

oh ok so a_0 is zero aswell (like all the even n terms)?

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