Why do quark interactions not lead to wave function collapse?

[Dagl1]

Hello,

I was thinking of wave-form collapse and how this is the result of interactions of particles (? in case particles isn't correct, interactions of things). A proton consists of 3 quarks that 'undergo' colour changing. This is mediated by gluons. As this is part of/result of strong interactions, I presume we can consider colour change an interaction. Why do these interactions not result in every proton always being measured. 

I suppose that wave-form collapse may not be a Yes or No thing, but that such small 'interactions' only lead to reduction(?) of the total wave-function. (I have no idea, I could and probably am wrong, but feel that I should at least attempt coming up with an idea myself before asking).

Thank you for your time and have a nice day,

Dagl

[swansont]

"Being measured" is a very vague way of describing this issue. Wave function collapse implies there is a superposition of states. What superposition would be present, that is removed by quark interactions?

[Dagl1]

22 minutes ago, swansont said:

"Being measured" is a very vague way of describing this issue. Wave function collapse implies there is a superposition of states. What superposition would be present, that is removed by quark interactions?

Hmm so I thought that the wave functions/superpositions of the quarks make up the complete superposition of the proton. 
I have an additional question in the same vein (and to which you will probably answer the same thing); an electron 'orbiting' a proton is interacting with that proton. The electron is 'confined'  to that orbital due the quantum nature of orbitals (if I am not mistaken). But the probability of finding an electron is based on the position of the (centre of) the atom.

I don't know if I am wording this correctly but, I would think that the places where we could find the electron, are based on where we could find the proton. So then I also imagine that they must be constantly 'exchanging information' and therefore the superpositions of both should collapse (?)

I can imagine that the interactions of quarks within the proton don't affect the superpositions of the proton as a whole, but then I don't get how that would work for interactions between different particles (a proton, neutron and electron together for instance, these must constantly be interacting, so then shouldn't the superpositions they are in collapse or be limited in some way?)

My apologies if I completely misunderstood what you are hinting at with your question.

Thanks again

Edit: While I understand that the Atom itself could be in a superposition of states as a whole, I don't understand how there are still probabilty functions for, for instance, the electron orbitals as seen on the picture here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atomic_orbital

Edited February 5, 2020 by Dagl1
Added sentence

[MigL]

I would assume it is the superposition of the quarks that is collapsed by the interactions.
The proton itself can still remain in a superposition of its own states.

After all, an atom can be in a superposition of states, yet its constituent electrons are continuously interacting with its nucleus.

EDIT: cross posted with your response to Swansont.

 

The wave function describing all possible observables of an atom ( say Hydrogen to keep it simple ) does not consider the proton in the nucleus at all, just the potential arising from its presence, and how the electron is affected by it.
It is after all, solely the electron 'configuration' that determines how the atom interacts with other atoms.

Edited February 5, 2020 by MigL

[Dagl1]

28 minutes ago, MigL said:

I would assume it is the superposition of the quarks that is collapsed by the interactions.
The proton itself can still remain in a superposition of its own states.

After all, an atom can be in a superposition of states, yet its constituent electrons are continuously interacting with its nucleus.

EDIT: cross posted with your response to Swansont.

 

The wave function describing all possible observables of an atom ( say Hydrogen to keep it simple ) does not consider the proton in the nucleus at all, just the potential arising from its presence, and how the electron is affected by it.
It is after all, solely the electron 'configuration' that determines how the atom interacts with other atoms.

Okay but shouldn't the potential that arises from it presence be determined by the wavefunction of the proton? and shouldn't that be interacting with the wavefucntion of the electron (sorry for basically asking the same thing, I don't really get it;p).

[MigL]

If you were to replace the 'square' potential in the 'particle in a box' solution with a Coulomb potential, you would get the Hydrogen atom solution.
The proton is not involved at all; only its potential well.

[swansont]

It's not clear to me how a superposition of quark states would affect the electron, and what the superposition of quark states actually is. 

To use MigL's example: what changes for the potential well created by the quarks? What quark states are in superposition? If quarks are in an excited state it's not a proton anymore

"the first excited state of the proton, usually referred to as the Delta-1232 (where 1232 MeV/c2 is the mass of the particle)"

https://www2.lbl.gov/abc/wallchart/chapters/02/5.html

IOW, you've added nearly 300 MeV to the system. Would you even have a hydrogen atom anymore?

So maybe you've got a superposition of spin states. How does the electron probe that superposition?

[Dagl1]

Okay,

I can't really answer your questions, but I think I understand it now. It's not just any interaction that leads to collapse of any of the superpositions, so the electron doesn't lead to any collapse of the spin superposition states. 

I hope I get it now,
Thank you both!